A nurse is reviewing laboratory results from a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational diabetes. The nurse notes that blood glucose levels taken 1 hr following a meal range from 145 mg/dL to 162 mg/dL over the past week. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Schedule a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test.

Tell the client to increase carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake.

Obtain an HbA1c.

Reinforce instruction about insulin administration.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.

Choice B rationale:

Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.

Choice C rationale:

Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.

Choice D rationale:

Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Cover the client with warm blankets.

Choice A rationale:

Shaking chills are not always associated with fever, especially during the immediate postpartum period. While determining the client's temperature can rule out infection, this action does not provide immediate relief or comfort. The chills are often physiological due to hormonal and vascular changes.

Choice B rationale:

Seizure precautions are unnecessary unless additional symptoms, such as loss of consciousness or convulsions, are observed. Shaking chills are typically not indicative of a neurological event but rather a normal postpartum response.

Choice C rationale:

Notifying the charge nurse is unnecessary unless the shaking is accompanied by other abnormal findings, such as fever or prolonged chills. The immediate priority is to ensure client comfort.

Choice D rationale:

Providing warm blankets addresses the primary issue of discomfort caused by postpartum chills. This is a standard intervention to stabilize the client's body temperature and promote comfort. The action is immediate, non-invasive, and effective.

A. "Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.". B. "What else have you been eating?.". C. "This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.". D. "Come to the office, and we will check things out.".

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice C rationale:

This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or

tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.

Choice A rationale:

"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.

Choice B rationale:

"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.

Choice D rationale:

"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.

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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results from a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational diabetes. The nurse notes that blood glucose levels taken 1 hr following a meal range from 145 mg/dL to 162 mg/dL over the past week. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing shaking chills during the immediate postpartum period. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Choice B rationale:

Choice C rationale:

Choice D rationale:

A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse about the complications associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications should the nurse include?

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