A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?
Placenta previa.
Preterm labor.
Threatened abortion.
Abruptio placentae.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Vastus lateralis.
Choice A rationale:
The deltoid muscle is not typically used for newborn injections because it is too small and underdeveloped, making it an inappropriate site for intramuscular injections in this age group.
Choice B rationale:
The dorsogluteal muscle is also not recommended for newborns due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and the muscle’s underdevelopment.
Choice C rationale:
The ventrogluteal muscle, while a good site for older children and adults, is not commonly used for newborns because it is not as easily accessible and developed as the vastus lateralis.
Choice D rationale:
The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the anterolateral aspect of the thigh, is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in newborns. It is well-developed and provides a large muscle mass, making it the safest and most effective site for administering vitamin K.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
Choice A rationale:
Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean birth is important, but it is not the immediate first action. The priority is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to prevent fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale:
Explaining to the client what is happening is important for communication and reassurance, but it is not the immediate first action. Immediate physical intervention is required to prevent harm to the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Covering the cord with a sterile, moist saline dressing is a necessary step to prevent the cord from drying out and to reduce infection risk, but it should be done after repositioning the client to relieve pressure on the cord.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, which is crucial to maintain fetal oxygenation. This is the immediate first action to take in this emergency situation.
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