A nurse is reviewing the client's diagnostic results and vital signs.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Anticipate client to be prepped for cardiac catheterization.
Assist with a continuous heparin infusion.
Encourage the client to ambulate.
Anticipate an increased dosage of metoprolol.
Obtain a prescription for client to be NPO.
Request a prescription for an antibiotic.
Correct Answer : A,B,D,E
Chest pain radiating to the left arm is characteristic for angina in coronary artery disease. This is suggested more by the client’s medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Clients with angina are scheduled for diagnostic cardiac catheterization to assess the extent of coronary blockage
Heparin is used to prevent the propagation of a clot that is formed on an unstable atherosclerotic plaque. Beta blockers are prescribed to lower the heart rate. This reduces the myocardial demand for oxygen.
The firstline medication include antiplatelets unless there's concurrent venous thromboembolism.
Keeping the client NPO within 2 hours of the procedure is important to prevent aspiration whole under sedation.
Ambulation increases demand on the heart which may worsen the pain Antibiotics have no role in coronary artery disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clients with flail chest often experience compromised respiratory function due to the paradoxical movement of the chest wall. Providing humidified oxygen can help improve oxygenation and maintain airway patency, especially if the client is experiencing hypoxia.
B. Administering antibiotic medication is not a primary intervention for a flail chest unless there is evidence of an associated infection, such as pneumonia
C. Fluid restriction is not typically indicated for a client with a flail chest unless there are specific indications, such as heart failure or renal dysfunction.
D. While managing pain is important, flail chest often requires more aggressive pain management strategies, such as opioid analgesics or regional anesthesia, especially if the pain is severe and affects respiratory effort. Acetaminophen alone may not be sufficient for effective pain control in this situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can help decrease anxiety and relieve dyspnea in clients with acute heart failure. Therefore, a decrease in anxiety would indicate that the medication has been effective in achieving its intended outcome.
A. Emesis, or vomiting, is not an expected outcome of morphine administration in the context of acute heart failure.
B. While morphine can help alleviate dyspnea, an increased respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress rather than effective symptom relief.
D. Morphine does not directly affect urinary output, and a decrease in urinary output may indicate other issues such as renal dysfunction or fluid overload.
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