A nurse is reviewing the client's medical record in the presurgical holding area. Which of the following places the client at risk for a surgical site infection?
Body mass index (BMI) of 19
History of deep vein thrombosis
Aged 55 years old
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is D
A. Body mass index (BMI) of 19:
A BMI of 19 falls within the normal weight range. While obesity (high BMI) is a known risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs, having a lower BMI (underweight) like 19 may not directly increase the risk of SSIs. However, extreme malnutrition or low BMI due to underlying health conditions could potentially impact wound healing and immune function, indirectly contributing to infection risk.
B. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT):
A history of deep vein thrombosis is a risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs. Patients with a history of DVT may have impaired circulation or underlying vascular issues, which can affect tissue perfusion, wound healing, and increase the risk of infections.
C. Aged 55 years old:
Age is a risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs. Older adults, typically defined as those aged 65 and above, may have reduced immune function, slower wound healing, and underlying health conditions that contribute to infection risk. While 55 years old is not considered advanced age in terms of surgical risk, older age in general is associated with a higher risk of complications.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus:
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for SSIs. Diabetes can impair immune function, delay wound healing, and increase susceptibility to infections. Poorly controlled blood sugar levels in diabetic patients can further exacerbate the risk of SSIs post-surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Change the dressing when it is saturated:
This intervention is the most appropriate for managing a deep wound with a wet to-damp dressing. Wet to-damp dressings are designed to maintain a moist environment conducive to wound healing. Changing the dressing when it becomes saturated with wound exudate helps prevent excessive moisture accumulation, which can lead to skin maceration and potential infection. It ensures that the wound bed remains in an optimal healing environment and reduces the risk of complications.
B. Assess the wound bed once a day:
Assessing the wound bed is an essential part of wound care, as it allows the nurse to monitor healing progress, assess for signs of infection, and evaluate the effectiveness of the chosen dressing. However, the frequency of wound bed assessment may vary depending on the specific patient's needs and the type of dressing being used. While daily assessment is generally recommended, it does not directly dictate the timing of dressing changes for wet to-damp dressings, which are primarily changed based on saturation levels.
C. Contact the provider when the dressing leaks:
Contacting the provider when the dressing leaks or when there are concerns or complications is an important step in patient care. Leaking dressings can indicate issues with the dressing application, excessive wound exudate, or potential complications such as infection. It's crucial to inform the provider promptly so that appropriate interventions can be implemented, but this instruction is more reactive and does not specifically address the timing of dressing changes.
D. Change the dressing every 6 hours:
Changing the dressing every 6 hours is not typically recommended for wet to-damp dressings unless specifically indicated based on the patient's condition and the amount of wound exudate. Frequent dressing changes can disrupt the healing process, cause unnecessary trauma to the wound bed, and increase the risk of infection. Dressing change frequency should be based on the assessment of wound exudate and the dressing's ability to maintain a moist environment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stage III pressure injury
Stage III pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss, extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through the fascia. These wounds typically present as deep craters and may involve undermining or tunneling. Non-blanchable erythema alone without visible skin loss is not characteristic of a Stage III pressure injury.
B. Stage IV pressure injury
Stage IV pressure injuries are the most severe and involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These wounds often have extensive tissue damage and can be difficult to manage. Again, non-blanchable erythema without visible skin loss is not indicative of a Stage IV pressure injury.
C. Stage II pressure injury
Stage II pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with damage to the epidermis and possibly the dermis. These wounds often present as shallow open ulcers or blisters and may have characteristics such as intact or ruptured blisters. While Stage II injuries can present with erythema, non-blanchable erythema specifically indicates a Stage I injury.
D. Stage I pressure injury
Stage I pressure injuries are the earliest stage and involve non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. The skin may be warmer or cooler than surrounding tissue and may have changes in sensation. There is no visible skin loss at this stage, but the area is at risk for further injury if pressure is not relieved. Therefore, non-blanchable erythema on the heels most likely indicates a Stage I pressure injury.
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