A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client prior to administering IV tobramycin.
Which of the following laboratory values should the report to the provider?
Sodium 137 mEq
Hgb 15 g/
Hct 439
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dl
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
A sodium level of 137 mEq is within a normal range.
Choice B rationale:
A hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL is within a normal range.
Choice C rationale:
A hematocrit level of 43% is within a normal range.
Choice D rationale:
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL is elevated, indicating possible kidney impairment. Tobramycin is known to be nephrotoxic, and administering it to a patient with impaired kidney function could exacerbate the condition. Therefore, this value should be reported to the provider before administering the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather an adverse effect of morphine. Naloxone would reduce the analgesic effect of morphine and increase the pain sensation in the client.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, on the central nervous system. One of the main adverse effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to hypoxia and death. Naloxone restores normal breathing by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, a therapeutic effect of naloxone is increased respiratory rate.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the blood pressure significantly, unless the client had severe hypotension due to opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the gastrointestinal system, unless the client had severe nausea and vomiting due to opioid overdose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infections.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat deep-vein thrombosis.
Choice C rationale:
Raloxifene is a medication used to treat and prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism; it's primarily focused on bone health.
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