A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive for birth control.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives for this client?
Migraine with aura.
Hypotension.
Dysmenorrhea.
History of ovarian cysts.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Migraine with aura is considered a Category 4 contraindication (unacceptable health risk) for the use of combined hormonal contraceptives (CHCs), including oral contraceptives. The estrogen component in CHCs increases the risk of ischemic stroke, and this risk is substantially amplified in clients who experience migraine headaches with focal neurological symptoms (aura), necessitating the selection of an alternative birth control method.
Choice B rationale
Hypotension (low blood pressure) is typically not a contraindication for oral contraceptive use. In fact, some studies suggest a potential, though often clinically insignificant, increase in blood pressure with CHC use due to a potential increase in circulating angiotensinogen, the precursor to the vasoconstrictive hormone angiotensin II. The use of CHCs is not restricted based on hypotension.
Choice C rationale
Dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) is often significantly improved or resolved by the use of combined oral contraceptives (COCs). COCs work by suppressing ovulation and thinning the endometrial lining, which typically reduces prostaglandin production, thus decreasing the cramping and pain associated with the menstrual cycle, making it an indication, not a contraindication.
Choice D rationale
A history of ovarian cysts is generally not a contraindication for combined oral contraceptive use, provided the cysts were non-malignant and resolved or are benign. In fact, COCs can be used to treat or prevent the recurrence of functional ovarian cysts by suppressing the hormonal stimulation of the ovaries that leads to their formation, making it a potential therapeutic benefit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Soft grunting noises during expiration are a sign of mild to moderate respiratory distress in a newborn. Grunting is the newborn's attempt to keep the alveoli open by increasing Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP), suggesting decreased lung compliance or insufficient surfactant. This finding requires immediate notification of the provider for evaluation and potential intervention.
Choice B rationale
A positive Babinski reflex, which involves the great toe dorsiflexing and the other toes fanning out upon stroking the sole of the foot, is a normal neurological finding in a newborn and infant. This reflex persists until about 1 to 2 years of age as the central nervous system matures, and therefore does not require reporting.
Choice C rationale
Acrocyanosis, which is pale blue hands and feet with pinkish trunk and mucous membranes, is a common and normal finding in a newborn during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth due to immature peripheral circulation and cold exposure. This peripheral vasoconstriction resolves spontaneously and is not typically reported unless accompanied by central cyanosis.
Choice D rationale
Blood-tinged discharge from the vagina, often called pseudomenstruation, is a normal, transient finding in female newborns. It is caused by the withdrawal of maternal estrogen hormones following birth, leading to a minor sloughing of the uterine endometrium, and does not indicate a pathological condition requiring immediate reporting.
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