A nurse is reviewing the results of a 1-hr glucose screening test for a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. The client's glucose value is 130 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule the client for a routine 1-month appointment.
Instruct the client to return for a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test.
Have the client perform home glucose monitoring for 1 week.
Repeat the 1 hr glucose testing in 1 week.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- Scheduling a routine 1-month appointment is not appropriate given the elevated glucose value. A 1-hour glucose screening test value of 130 mg/dL indicates an elevated glucose level, which suggests the need for further testing to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
B) Correct - An elevated glucose value on the initial screening test requires confirmation through a more comprehensive test, such as the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test.
C) Incorrect- Home glucose monitoring might be indicated for gestational diabetes but is not the next step after an elevated 1-hour glucose screening test.
D) Incorrect- Repeating the 1-hour glucose test in 1 week is not necessary; if the initial test is elevated, further testing is required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Elevated blood pressure is not a primary risk associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
B) Incorrect- Leukopenia (low white blood cell count) is not a common consequence of hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) Correct - Hyperemesis gravidarum, severe nausea, and vomiting during pregnancy can lead to dehydration, which may affect amniotic fluid levels and result in hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid).
D) Incorrect- Ketonuria (presence of ketones in the urine) is a possible consequence of excessive vomiting, but it's not the primary concern associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like high blood pressure, not for controlling postpartum bleeding.
B) Incorrect- Terbutaline is a bronchodilator and is not typically used for postpartum bleeding.
C) Correct - Oxytocin is a uterotonic medication often used to control excessive bleeding after childbirth. It helps the uterus contract and reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
D) Incorrect- Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance fetal lung maturity when given to pregnant clients at risk of preterm birth
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