A nurse is reviewing treatment protocols for clients exposed to bioterrorism agents. For which of the following agents should the nurse plan to administer a vaccine following exposure?

Anthrax

Sarin

Smallpox

Botulism

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Anthrax: This is incorrect. While a vaccine is available for anthrax, it is generally administered as a pre-exposure prophylaxis, not as a treatment following exposure.
B. Sarin: This is incorrect. Sarin is a nerve agent for which there is no vaccine. Treatment focuses on immediate decontamination and administration of antidotes like atropine.
C. Smallpox: This is correct. A vaccine for smallpox is administered following exposure as a post-exposure prophylaxis, as smallpox is a virus for which immediate vaccination can help prevent the disease.
D. Botulism: This is incorrect. Botulism is treated with antitoxin rather than a vaccine. There is no post-exposure vaccine available for botulism.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. History of sexually transmitted infection (STI): This is incorrect. A history of STI is not a contraindication for menopausal hormone therapy.
B. History of breast cancer: This is correct. Hormone therapy is not recommended for individuals with a history of breast cancer due to the potential risk of cancer recurrence or progression.
C. History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): This is incorrect. While HT might not be the primary treatment for COPD, it is not contraindicated solely due to COPD.
D. History of thyroiditis: This is incorrect. A history of thyroiditis does not contraindicate the use of hormone therapy for menopause.

A. Initiate intravenous (IV) access for fluid replacement. B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position. C. Apply pressure directly to the wound. D. Apply a tourniquet just below the level of the shoulder.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Initiate intravenous (IV) access for fluid replacement. This is important for managing shock or significant blood loss, but it is not the first priority in managing severe bleeding.
B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position. This would not be appropriate for severe bleeding and does not control hemorrhage effectively.
C. Apply pressure directly to the wound. This is correct. Direct pressure is the immediate and essential step to control bleeding in a severe wound. It helps to stabilize the clot and reduce blood loss.
D. Apply a tourniquet just below the level of the shoulder. This is not the first intervention. A tourniquet is used if direct pressure does not control severe bleeding and should be applied above the wound, not below.

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A nurse is reviewing treatment protocols for clients exposed to bioterrorism agents. For which of the following agents should the nurse plan to administer a vaccine following exposure?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing menopausal symptoms and asks the nurse about menopausal hormone therapy (HT). The nurse should inform the client that HT is not recommended due to which of the following findings in the client's medical history?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a deep laceration on her left lower forearm and is bleeding heavily from the wound. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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