A nurse is preparing to perform a Papanicolaou (Pap) test for a 35-year-old female client during a routine gynecological examination. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate before conducting the procedure?
Instruct the client to abstain from sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the test.
Educate the client about the risk factors associated with cervical cancer.
Assess the client's vital signs, including blood pressure and pulse rate.
Explain the steps of the Pap test procedure to the client.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Instruct the client to abstain from sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the test: While abstaining from sexual intercourse can be recommended to avoid contamination, it is not the most immediate concern before performing the test.
B. Educate the client about the risk factors associated with cervical cancer: While important, this is not a pre-procedural intervention but rather part of general patient education.
C. Assess the client's vital signs, including blood pressure and pulse rate: Vital signs are important but not specifically required before performing a Pap test.
D. Explain the steps of the Pap test procedure to the client: This is the most appropriate intervention as it prepares the client for the procedure, reducing anxiety and ensuring informed consent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increased sweating: This is incorrect. Increased sweating is not typically indicative of internal hemorrhaging. It can be associated with various conditions but is not a specific sign of internal bleeding.
B. Increased redness at the site: This is incorrect. Increased redness would more likely be associated with localized infection or inflammation rather than internal hemorrhaging.
C. Increased abdominal distention: This is correct. Increased abdominal distention can be a sign of internal hemorrhaging, particularly if blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity (hemoperitoneum), leading to abdominal swelling and discomfort.
D. Increased blood pressure: This is incorrect. Internal hemorrhaging often leads to hypotension rather than increased blood pressure, as blood volume decreases and the body attempts to compensate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia: This is incorrect. While serious, this injury does not require immediate life-saving intervention and is generally categorized as less urgent.
B. A client who has sustained a major burn to their upper torso and extremities: This is incorrect. Although severe, if the client is stable and responsive, they may be categorized as yellow (delayed) unless there are immediate life-threatening complications.
C. A client who has a sprained ankle and laceration to the lower leg: This is incorrect. These injuries are considered less severe and would typically be tagged as green (minor).
D. A client who has an open traumatic brain injury and agonal breaths: This is correct. Agonal breaths and severe head injury indicate a need for immediate life-saving intervention, so this client should receive a red tag for the highest priority.
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