A nurse is teaching a class about sleep disorders. The nurse should include that which of the following conditions can cause obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

Heart failure

Brainstem injury

Recent weight loss

Enlarged tonsils

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Heart failure:
While heart failure can cause a variety of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, and nocturnal respiratory disturbances, it is not a direct cause of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). However, heart failure can exacerbate the effects of sleep apnea, particularly in individuals who already have OSA, leading to a condition known as "central sleep apnea with Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

B) Brainstem injury:
Brainstem injury can affect the regulation of breathing and may lead to central sleep apnea, where the brain fails to send the proper signals to the muscles that control breathing. However, brainstem injury does not directly cause obstructive sleep apnea, which is typically caused by physical blockages or obstructions in the upper airway.

C) Recent weight loss:
Recent weight loss is generally not associated with the development of obstructive sleep apnea. In fact, weight loss can sometimes reduce the severity of OSA in overweight or obese individuals. OSA is more commonly associated with excess weight and fat deposits around the neck and throat, which can contribute to airway obstruction during sleep.

D) Enlarged tonsils:
Enlarged tonsils, especially in children, are a well-known cause of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). The enlarged tonsils can block the upper airway during sleep, leading to periods of apnea or hypopnea (reduced airflow). This obstruction can result in snoring, choking, and interrupted sleep.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Denial:
Denial is the first stage in Kubler-Ross's model of grief. It typically involves a person having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis or the reality of death. Clients in the denial stage may refuse to acknowledge the seriousness of their condition or may act as if everything is fine despite the obvious signs of illness. The statement “I am ready to update my will” suggests that the client has already accepted the reality of their terminal diagnosis and is preparing for what is to come, which is not characteristic of denial.

B) Acceptance:
Acceptance is the final stage in the Kubler-Ross model of grief. It is marked by coming to terms with the reality of death or a terminal diagnosis. Clients who are in the acceptance stage have typically processed their grief and are ready to make practical decisions, such as updating a will or making arrangements for the end of life. The client’s statement about updating their will reflects an acceptance of their condition and a focus on finalizing matters, which aligns with the stage of acceptance.

C) Anger:
Anger is a stage in the Kubler-Ross model of grief where individuals may feel frustrated, resentful, or upset about their situation. Clients in the anger stage may express feelings of injustice or frustration, often lashing out at others. Since the client is talking about practical matters such as updating their will, this does not indicate the emotional response of anger, which would be more likely to involve blaming others or feeling bitter.

D) Bargaining:
Bargaining is the stage where a person may make deals or promises in an attempt to delay or avoid the reality of their situation. Clients in the bargaining stage may attempt to negotiate with a higher power, themselves, or others, asking for more time or for changes in their circumstances. Since the client’s statement is about accepting the terminal diagnosis and preparing for the future, it is not indicative of bargaining, which often involves a desire for a change or a different outcome.

A. Potassium level 3 mEq/L. B. BUN 9.5 mg/dl C. Creatinine 0.4 mg/dl D. Sodium 135 mEq/L

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Potassium level 3 mEq/L:
A potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (which is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and represents hypokalemia. Potassium is crucial for normal muscle and nerve function, including cardiac function. Low potassium levels can lead to dangerous arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrest if not addressed promptly. This is the priority value because hypokalemia can be life-threatening and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider to correct the imbalance.

B) BUN 9.5 mg/dl:
A BUN (blood urea nitrogen) level of 9.5 mg/dL is within the normal reference range for most adults (typically 7-20 mg/dL). While an abnormal BUN level could indicate kidney dysfunction or dehydration, this value is not immediately concerning and does not represent a critical finding that requires urgent attention.

C) Creatinine 0.4 mg/dl:
A creatinine level of 0.4 mg/dL is below the normal range (usually around 0.6-1.2 mg/dL), which might indicate low muscle mass or a transient decrease in kidney function. However, a low creatinine level is generally not as urgent or concerning as an elevated level, and it does not typically require immediate intervention

D) Sodium 135 mEq/L:
A sodium level of 135 mEq/L is slightly below the normal range (135-145 mEq/L), indicating mild hyponatremia. Although this can be concerning if the drop is acute or symptomatic (e.g., causing confusion, seizures, or lethargy), a mild decrease in sodium is not immediately life-threatening unless it worsens rapidly.

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A nurse is teaching a class about sleep disorders. The nurse should include that which of the following conditions can cause obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal diagnosis and states, ‘’I am ready to update my will. " The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following Kubler-Ross stages of grief?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse on a medical unit is reviewing the laboratory reports for a client. Which of the following laboratory values is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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