A nurse is teaching a client who has pernicious anemia to self-administer nasal cyanocobalamin. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
“Use a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication if you have a stuffy nose."
"Plan to self-administer this medication for the next 6 months."
"Lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication."
"Administer the medication into one nostril once per week."
The Correct Answer is D
A. “Use a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication if you have a stuffy nose": This statement is not necessary for the administration of nasal cyanocobalamin. Nasal decongestants are not routinely recommended before administering nasal medications.
B. "Plan to self-administer this medication for the next 6 months": While the duration of treatment for pernicious anemia may vary, specifying a timeframe of 6 months for self- administration is not appropriate without considering individualized treatment plans.
C. "Lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication": There is no need for the client to lie down after administering nasal cyanocobalamin. This instruction is not necessary and may not be practical.
D. "Administer the medication into one nostril once per week": This is the correct instruction for administering nasal cyanocobalamin. It is typically given once weekly into one nostril. This
method provides a convenient and effective route for vitamin B12 supplementation in clients with pernicious anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Urinary retention: While urinary retention can be a complication of epidural anesthesia, it is not the priority finding in this scenario. The priority is to address potential complications that can lead to maternal or fetal compromise.
B. Leg weakness: Leg weakness can occur as a side effect of epidural anesthesia but is not the priority finding in this scenario unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to
mobilize or push during labor.
C. Hypotension: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to sympathetic blockade, which can lead to decreased venous return and subsequent maternal
hypotension. Maternal hypotension can compromise uteroplacental perfusion, leading to fetal distress. Therefore, addressing hypotension promptly is the priority to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.
D. Temperature 39°C (102.2°F): While fever should be monitored and addressed, it is not the priority finding in this scenario unless it indicates an infection, which would require further assessment and intervention. However, maternal hypotension poses a more immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus during labor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The correct order is
- wipe off tops of insulin vials with alcohol sponge.
- draw back amount of air into the syringe that equals total dose.
- inject air equal to NPH dose into NPH vial. ...
- air equal to regular dose into regular vial.
- invert regular insulin bottle and withdraw regular insulin dose.
- without adding more air into NPH vial, carefully withdraw NPH dose
B. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: This step should occur after injecting air into the regular insulin vial. The nurse should draw up the regular insulin before drawing up the NPH
insulin.
C. Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Inject air into the regular insulin vial is not thecorrect first step to avoid contamination of the clear insulin with cloudy insulin..
D. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial: This step should occur after withdrawing the regular insulin. The nurse should draw up the NPH insulin after drawing up the regular insulin to ensure the correct sequence and dosage.
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