A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to administer amoxicillin PO when the client refuses the medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Record the client's refusal in the electronic health record.
Leave the medication at the client's bedside for them to take later.
Schedule the client's medication for a later time.
Prepare the client's medication intravenously instead of PO.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Record the client's refusal in the electronic health record:
Recording the client’s refusal in the electronic health record is a crucial step. It ensures there is a documented account of the client’s decision, which is important for legal and medical records. This documentation also allows healthcare providers to follow up on the refusal and address any underlying reasons for it.
B) Leave the medication at the client's bedside for them to take later:
Leaving medication at the client's bedside without supervision is not advisable. It could lead to improper administration, potential medication errors, or the medication being consumed by someone other than the intended recipient. The refusal should be documented and addressed through appropriate channels rather than leaving the medication unattended.
C) Schedule the client's medication for a later time:
Scheduling the medication for a later time without addressing the reason for refusal does not resolve the issue. It is essential to first understand why the client refused the medication and then decide on the appropriate action, which may involve patient education or consultation with the healthcare provider.
D) Prepare the client's medication intravenously instead of PO:
Changing the route of administration from oral to intravenous without consent or a valid medical reason is not appropriate. The client’s refusal should be respected, and any concerns or preferences regarding medication administration should be discussed with them and documented properly.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Atropine:
Atropine is an appropriate medication for treating symptomatic sinus bradycardia. It works by increasing the heart rate and improving cardiac output, which can alleviate symptoms such as dizziness and faintness. Given the client's symptoms of shortness of breath, dizziness, and fainting, along with sinus bradycardia, atropine is indicated to stabilize the heart rate and address the immediate symptoms.
B. Lidocaine:
Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication typically used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, not sinus bradycardia. It would not address the client's current symptoms or the underlying issue of a slow heart rate. Additionally, lidocaine can potentially worsen bradycardia and is therefore not appropriate in this scenario.
C. Digoxin:
Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation by increasing the force of myocardial contraction and slowing the heart rate. In the context of sinus bradycardia and ST-segment elevation, digoxin is contraindicated as it may further decrease the heart rate and exacerbate the client's symptoms.
D. Sotalol:
Sotalol is a beta-blocker and antiarrhythmic used to manage certain types of tachyarrhythmias. It is not suitable for treating sinus bradycardia and can potentially lower the heart rate further. Administering sotalol in this case could worsen the bradycardia and the client’s symptoms of dizziness and faintness.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) "I should expect to take my medication for 3 weeks":
This statement indicates an understanding of the medication regimen. For genital herpes, antiviral medications are often prescribed for several days to suppress outbreaks and reduce transmission risk. Typical courses last about a week, but extended treatment may be required in some cases. It's important for the client to adhere to the prescribed duration of therapy.
B) "I should apply antibiotic ointment to the lesions":
Antibiotic ointments are not used for genital herpes, as it is a viral infection, not a bacterial one. Antiviral medications are the appropriate treatment. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of the treatment approach.
C) "I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks":
Genital herpes lesions usually heal within 2 to 4 weeks with appropriate antiviral treatment. A 6-week timeframe is longer than typical for lesion resolution. This indicates a misunderstanding of the expected course of the infection.
D) "I should use natural skin condoms during sexual intercourse":
Natural skin condoms do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, including genital herpes. Latex or polyurethane condoms are recommended for protection and to reduce transmission risk. This statement shows a lack of understanding about effective preventive measures.
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