A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?
Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.
Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
Fetal lie is longitudinal
Maternal pelvis is gynecold.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior: The occiput posterior position (the back of
the baby's head facing the mother's back) can lead to a more challenging and prolonged labor with intense back pain.
B. Fetal attitude is in general flexion: Flexion is the normal fetal attitude for birth and does not contribute to a difficult labor with backache.
C. Fetal lie is longitudinal: Longitudinal lie refers to the baby's position along the mother's spine, but it doesn't specify the position of the baby's back, so it is not directly related to backache.
D. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid: Gynecoid pelvis is the most favorable pelvis shape for childbirth, so it is not likely to cause difficult labor with severe backache.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: The first priority assessment finding to report to the provider is contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. Prolonged contractions without adequate rest can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, potentially compromising the wellbeing of both the client and the baby. The provider needs to be informed immediately for further
evaluation and intervention.
Choice B: Pressure on the perineum and the desire to bear down indicate that the client is experiencing the urge to push, which is expected during the second stage of labor, not during the active phase of the first stage. It is not the first priority to report.
Choice C: Clear fluid discharge from the vagina can indicate rupture of membranes, but it is not an immediate concern unless the fluid is meconiumstained or there are other signs of fetal distress.
Choice D: Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug (also known as "bloody show") is a common sign that labor is approaching, but it is not an immediate concern unless there are other signs of labor progression or complications. It is not the first priority to report.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Amniocentesis is not primarily performed to determine the gender of the fetus. The main indication for this procedure is to detect genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders.
Choice B: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13, among others.
Choice C: Rh incompatibility is assessed through blood tests, not amniocentesis. It involves determining the Rh factor of the mother's blood and monitoring for potential Rh sensitization.
Choice D: Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small to allow for a vaginal delivery. It is not related to amniocentesis.
Choice E: While detecting neural tube defects can be done through amniocentesis, it is not the primary indication for the procedure. Neural tube defects can also be screened for through blood tests and ultrasound examinations. Amniocentesis is more commonly used for chromosomal analysis.
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