A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"This always happens by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy."
"This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy."
"This usually happens between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy"
"This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "This always happens by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.": Quickening typically occurs later in pregnancy, not by the end of the first trimester.
B. "This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.": Quickening occurs much earlier than the last trimester.
C. "This usually happens between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.": Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, generally occurs between 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.
D. "This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.": Quickening does not directly correlate with the rising of the uterus out of the pelvis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is B, C, and D.
Choice A: Increase the oxytocin infusion to 13 mu/min
Increasing the oxytocin infusion is not indicated in this scenario. Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but if the fetal heart rate tracing is abnormal (Category 3), increasing oxytocin could exacerbate fetal distress. The priority is to stabilize the fetal condition before considering increasing oxytocin.
Choice B: Initiate a bolus of primary IV fluids
Initiating a bolus of primary IV fluids is appropriate. This action helps improve placental perfusion and maternal hydration, which can be beneficial in response to abnormal fetal heart rate tracings. Adequate hydration can enhance uteroplacental blood flow and improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice C: Place the client in a sidelying position
Placing the client in a sidelying position is recommended. This position can improve uteroplacental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, especially if there are signs of fetal distress. It helps to alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, enhancing blood flow to the placenta.
Choice D: Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via a venturi mask
While oxygen may be indicated for fetal distress, the correct method is usually a non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min, not a venturi mask. A venturi mask delivers more precise oxygen concentrations but not high-flow oxygen, which is needed in this scenario.
Choice E: Perform a sterile vaginal examination (SVE)
A vaginal exam assesses labor progression, cervical dilation, station, and fetal position. This is important for determining whether labor is progressing appropriately or whether further interventions are needed.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Amniocentesis is not primarily performed to determine the gender of the fetus. The main indication for this procedure is to detect genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders.
Choice B: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13, among others.
Choice C: Rh incompatibility is assessed through blood tests, not amniocentesis. It involves determining the Rh factor of the mother's blood and monitoring for potential Rh sensitization.
Choice D: Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small to allow for a vaginal delivery. It is not related to amniocentesis.
Choice E: While detecting neural tube defects can be done through amniocentesis, it is not the primary indication for the procedure. Neural tube defects can also be screened for through blood tests and ultrasound examinations. Amniocentesis is more commonly used for chromosomal analysis.
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