A nurse receives the following medication orders while caring for multiple clients. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer first?

Normal saline 1 liter to client who is dehydrated

Morphine sulfate 4mg intravenously (IV) now for the client experiencing incisional pain

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) 0.4 mg sublingually (SL) stat for the client experiencing crushing chest pain

Lorazepam 2 mg IV now for the client who is anxious and restless

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Normal saline 1 liter to client who is dehydrated:
Administering normal saline to a dehydrated client is an important task, as it helps to restore fluid balance and improve circulatory volume. However, while rehydration is critical, it is not an immediate, life-threatening priority compared to other interventions. The nurse should begin this infusion after addressing more urgent needs such as severe chest pain, which could indicate a cardiac emergency.

B) Morphine sulfate 4mg intravenously (IV) now for the client experiencing incisional pain:
Morphine is a potent analgesic, and relieving pain for postoperative patients is essential for comfort and recovery. However, incisional pain, although important to address, is not life-threatening in this scenario. The client with chest pain should be prioritized because chest pain could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI) or other serious cardiac event that requires immediate intervention.

C) Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) 0.4 mg sublingually (SL) stat for the client experiencing crushing chest pain:
Crushing chest pain is a classic symptom of acute myocardial infarction (MI), a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain associated with angina or MI by dilating the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. In this case, chest pain is the most critical symptom, and immediate treatment is necessary to reduce the risk of further cardiac damage or complications.

D) Lorazepam 2 mg IV now for the client who is anxious and restless:
While lorazepam is an effective medication for anxiety and restlessness, it is not the most urgent medication in this case. The client’s anxiety should be addressed, but it does not pose an immediate threat to life. Anxiety can generally be managed after more acute, life-threatening conditions (such as chest pain) are stabilized.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Bradycardia:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by blocking the action of acetylcholine. While anticholinergic medications can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not a common side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine may have the opposite effect, potentially causing tachycardia (increased heart rate).

B) Excess salivation:
Excessive salivation is typically a symptom of Parkinson's disease itself, due to difficulty swallowing, rather than a side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine, as an anticholinergic agent, generally reduces salivation (anticholinergic effect), so this side effect is unlikely to occur with benztropine therapy.

C) Urinary retention:
Benztropine, being an anticholinergic drug, can inhibit the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder, leading to urinary retention. This is a common and serious side effect of anticholinergic drugs like benztropine. Urinary retention can lead to discomfort, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and kidney problems if not addressed.

D) Diarrhea:
Benztropine is more likely to cause constipation rather than diarrhea due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications often slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation.

A. Hydration with IV fluids B. Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges C. Hold the Digoxin D. Digibind E. Narcan

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

A) Hydration with IV fluids:
IV hydration may be ordered to improve kidney function and help facilitate the excretion of excess digoxin from the body. Digoxin toxicity is often related to impaired renal clearance, so improving hydration can promote renal perfusion and enhance the elimination of the drug. This is a common supportive measure to help in managing digoxin toxicity.

B) Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges:
This is incorrect because the patient's digoxin level is 4 ng/ml, which is significantly above the normal therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 ng/ml. A level of 4 ng/ml is toxic, and immediate action is required. Symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting are indicative of digoxin toxicity, and they necessitate prompt intervention.

C) Hold the Digoxin:
In the case of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to hold the digoxin. Digoxin should be discontinued immediately if toxicity is suspected, as continuing the medication could worsen symptoms like bradycardia and increase the risk of potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. This step is essential to prevent further complications.

D) Digibind:
Digibind (Digoxin immune fab) is a digoxin-specific antibody used in cases of severe digoxin toxicity or overdose. It binds to the digoxin molecules and helps to neutralize its effects. Given the elevated level of digoxin (4 ng/ml) and the presence of symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting, Digibind is likely to be ordered to reverse the effects of the toxicity.

E) Narcan:
Narcan (naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. There is no indication for the use of Narcan in this scenario, as digoxin toxicity does not involve opioid overdose. This intervention would be inappropriate and irrelevant to the management of digoxin toxicity.

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A nurse receives the following medication orders while caring for multiple clients. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following side effects of benztropine?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

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