A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who is hypertensive and is complaining of muscle weakness. Which of the following abnormalities on the clients EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hyperkalemia?
Peaked T waves
Inverted P waves
Widened QRS
Prominent U wave
The Correct Answer is A
A) Peaked T waves:
Peaked T waves are a classic sign of hyperkalemia on an EKG. As potassium levels rise, the T waves become taller, more pointed, and narrow, indicating changes in the heart's electrical conduction. This is one of the earliest and most characteristic EKG changes seen with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can result from conditions such as kidney dysfunction, use of potassium-sparing diuretics, or other electrolyte imbalances.
B) Inverted P waves:
Inverted P waves typically suggest issues such as atrial ischemia or ectopic atrial rhythms but are not a hallmark sign of hyperkalemia. They may also appear with other conditions, like atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, inverted P waves are not typically linked to elevated potassium levels.
C) Widened QRS:
A widened QRS complex can occur in several conditions, including hyperkalemia, but it is generally seen in more severe cases. As potassium levels rise further, the QRS complex may widen due to delayed conduction through the ventricles. Although a widened QRS can indicate hyperkalemia, it is a later sign, and it typically occurs after more specific changes like peaked T waves.
D) Prominent U wave:
Prominent U waves are more often associated with hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. U waves are typically seen after the T wave on the EKG and can be more prominent in conditions of low potassium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Retake the vital signs:
While taking vital signs is important, the client’s vital signs (respiratory rate of 13 bpm, oxygen saturation of 92%, and normal skin color) suggest that there is no immediate crisis, such as a sudden drop in oxygen saturation or significant hemodynamic instability. Therefore, retaking the vital signs would not address the most urgent issue at the moment, which is the client's shortness of breath while laying down.
B) Call the healthcare provider:
Calling the healthcare provider may eventually be necessary if the patient's condition worsens or remains unrelieved after interventions. However, the first priority should be to manage the client’s immediate symptoms and improve their comfort. The client’s complaint of shortness of breath when lying down suggests that the positioning may be a contributing factor to their discomfort.
C) Place the client in Fowler's position:
The most appropriate first action for a client with end-stage COPD and shortness of breath while lying down is to place the client in Fowler's position. This position (sitting upright, typically at a 45-60° angle) helps to improve lung expansion and reduce the workload of breathing by using gravity to assist in lung ventilation. It also promotes diaphragmatic breathing, which can relieve the feeling of breathlessness.
D) Increase the oxygen rate:
The client is already on 6 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula and has an oxygen saturation of 92%, which is within an acceptable range for a patient with COPD. Increasing the oxygen rate further could risk causing oxygen toxicity or lead to CO2 retention in clients with COPD, as their respiratory drive is often driven by low oxygen levels rather than high carbon dioxide levels. Thus, increasing the oxygen rate should be done cautiously and only if clinically indicated by a healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not normal responses to the edrophonium test and suggest a cholinergic crisis rather than a simple reaction to the medication. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overmedication with cholinergic drugs, leading to excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. While mild effects like slight nausea or dizziness can occur, cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions indicate toxicity, requiring immediate intervention.
B) Administration of atropine: The symptoms the patient is exhibiting—cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions—are indicative of cholinergic toxicity. Edrophonium, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is used in the Tensilon test to diagnose myasthenia gravis by temporarily improving muscle strength. However, in some cases, the patient may experience a cholinergic crisis from an overdose of the medication, resulting in excess acetylcholine at synapses, which overstimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. Atropine, an anticholinergic agent, blocks the effects of acetylcholine and is used to reverse these symptoms by reducing the excessive parasympathetic activity (e.g., reducing secretions and improving heart rate).
C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position: The Trendelenburg position (head down, feet up) is often used in cases of shock to help increase venous return to the heart. However, it is not appropriate for a cholinergic crisis. The patient’s symptoms are not due to hypotension or shock but are related to an overdose of edrophonium causing parasympathetic overstimulation.
D) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not related to an allergic reaction. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine used for allergic reactions, such as urticaria or anaphylaxis, but it does not treat cholinergic toxicity.
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