A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who is hypertensive and is complaining of muscle weakness. Which of the following abnormalities on the clients EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hyperkalemia?
Peaked T waves
Inverted P waves
Widened QRS
Prominent U wave
The Correct Answer is A
A) Peaked T waves:
Peaked T waves are a classic sign of hyperkalemia on an EKG. As potassium levels rise, the T waves become taller, more pointed, and narrow, indicating changes in the heart's electrical conduction. This is one of the earliest and most characteristic EKG changes seen with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can result from conditions such as kidney dysfunction, use of potassium-sparing diuretics, or other electrolyte imbalances.
B) Inverted P waves:
Inverted P waves typically suggest issues such as atrial ischemia or ectopic atrial rhythms but are not a hallmark sign of hyperkalemia. They may also appear with other conditions, like atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, inverted P waves are not typically linked to elevated potassium levels.
C) Widened QRS:
A widened QRS complex can occur in several conditions, including hyperkalemia, but it is generally seen in more severe cases. As potassium levels rise further, the QRS complex may widen due to delayed conduction through the ventricles. Although a widened QRS can indicate hyperkalemia, it is a later sign, and it typically occurs after more specific changes like peaked T waves.
D) Prominent U wave:
Prominent U waves are more often associated with hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. U waves are typically seen after the T wave on the EKG and can be more prominent in conditions of low potassium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) "ALS is caused by excess chemicals in the brain. The symptoms can be controlled with medication."
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a neurodegenerative disease that results in the progressive loss of motor neurons, which leads to muscle weakness, atrophy, and paralysis. It is not caused by "excess chemicals in the brain," and there are currently no medications that can cure ALS or completely control its symptoms. Medications such as riluzole can slow the progression slightly, but they do not stop or reverse the disease.
B) "The disease is progressive and will eventually lead to paralysis while maintaining cognitive function."
ALS is indeed a progressive neurodegenerative disease that leads to the gradual loss of muscle function due to the death of motor neurons. Over time, the patient will experience muscle weakness, atrophy, and paralysis, while the cognitive function typically remains intact until the later stages of the disease, although some patients may develop frontotemporal dementia. it is essential for the patient to understand that the disease will progressively impair their physical abilities while leaving cognitive functions largely unaffected in most cases.
C) "Before you lose cognitive function, you should consider creating an advanced directive."
While it is important for individuals with ALS to plan for the future, this statement is not entirely accurate. Cognitive function in ALS is often preserved throughout most of the disease, although there is a subset of patients who may develop frontotemporal dementia. It would be more appropriate to discuss advanced directives early in the disease, but it is not guaranteed that cognitive function will be lost before physical decline.
D) "Despite severe symptoms right now, most patients recover with treatment."
ALS is a progressive disease with no cure, and it does not typically result in recovery. While certain treatments can help manage symptoms or slow the progression of the disease, recovery is not a realistic expectation. Most patients with ALS experience gradual worsening of symptoms and ultimately may require assistance with daily activities as the disease progresses.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Go to the emergency department:
An immediate trip to the emergency department is generally not required for a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 82%. The PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s airflow is reduced, but it is not necessarily an emergency. PEFR readings are typically classified into zones: green (80-100% of personal best), yellow (50-79% of personal best), and red (below 50% of personal best). A reading of 82% is in the yellow zone, which suggests that the client is experiencing some degree of airway obstruction or worsening asthma symptoms
B) Continue to use salmeterol and fluticasone as prescribed:
While salmeterol (a long-acting beta agonist) and fluticasone (a corticosteroid) are important for long-term asthma control, continuing their use without additional intervention is not the most appropriate action when the PEFR is 82%. A PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s asthma is not well controlled at the moment, and the nurse should recommend additional short-acting relief to help open the airways (e.g., a rescue inhaler like albuterol.
C) Administer an additional rescue dose of Albuterol:
The correct immediate action is to administer a rescue dose of albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps open the airways quickly during an asthma exacerbation. A PEFR of 82% falls in the yellow zone, suggesting some obstruction but not an emergency situation. In this case, administering an additional rescue dose of albuterol can help improve airflow and bring the PEFR closer to normal.
D) Call the physician:
While it may be necessary to call the physician if the client’s asthma symptoms do not improve after using a rescue inhaler or if there is a significant decline in symptoms, the first immediate action should be to use a rescue medication like albuterol. Calling the physician may be appropriate after assessing the response to the rescue medication, but it is not the first step in managing a PEFR of 82%.
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