A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Hydration with IV fluids

Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges

Hold the Digoxin

Digibind

Narcan

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

A) Hydration with IV fluids:
IV hydration may be ordered to improve kidney function and help facilitate the excretion of excess digoxin from the body. Digoxin toxicity is often related to impaired renal clearance, so improving hydration can promote renal perfusion and enhance the elimination of the drug. This is a common supportive measure to help in managing digoxin toxicity.

B) Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges:
This is incorrect because the patient's digoxin level is 4 ng/ml, which is significantly above the normal therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 ng/ml. A level of 4 ng/ml is toxic, and immediate action is required. Symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting are indicative of digoxin toxicity, and they necessitate prompt intervention.

C) Hold the Digoxin:
In the case of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to hold the digoxin. Digoxin should be discontinued immediately if toxicity is suspected, as continuing the medication could worsen symptoms like bradycardia and increase the risk of potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. This step is essential to prevent further complications.

D) Digibind:
Digibind (Digoxin immune fab) is a digoxin-specific antibody used in cases of severe digoxin toxicity or overdose. It binds to the digoxin molecules and helps to neutralize its effects. Given the elevated level of digoxin (4 ng/ml) and the presence of symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting, Digibind is likely to be ordered to reverse the effects of the toxicity.

E) Narcan:
Narcan (naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. There is no indication for the use of Narcan in this scenario, as digoxin toxicity does not involve opioid overdose. This intervention would be inappropriate and irrelevant to the management of digoxin toxicity.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Limit fluid intake:
There is no evidence to suggest that limiting fluid intake is necessary or beneficial for clients with multiple sclerosis (MS). In fact, staying well-hydrated is often encouraged, especially for individuals with bladder dysfunction or those at risk for urinary retention or constipation, which are common symptoms of MS. Restricting fluid intake could exacerbate these issues and is not a priority in MS management.

B) Utilize assistive devices as needed:
The most important aspect of teaching for a client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is to encourage the use of assistive devices as needed. MS often causes mobility issues, weakness, and coordination difficulties due to damage to the nervous system. Using devices like canes, walkers, or wheelchairs can significantly improve independence and safety, helping the client maintain mobility and prevent falls

C) Schedule eye examinations every other year:
Eye problems, such as optic neuritis or diplopia (double vision), are common in MS, but the frequency of eye exams depends on the individual’s symptoms. Regular eye exams are important, but every other year is generally not frequent enough. Most MS patients are advised to have annual eye exams or as recommended by their ophthalmologist, especially if they experience any changes in vision.

D) Double up on any missed scheduled medications:
Doubling up on missed medications is not recommended, as it can lead to overdose or increase the risk of side effects. It is important to follow the prescribed medication regimen and use strategies to help the client remember their medications, such as setting reminders or using a medication organizer.

A. The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole) B. Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction C. Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole) D. Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.

B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:

The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.

C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.

D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.

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A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client who is recently diagnosed with Multiple sclerosis. Which of the following is the most important to include in the patient teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient asks the nurse what the P Wave indicates on an EKG strip. The nurse informs the patient that the P Wave represents:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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