A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Hydration with IV fluids

Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges

Hold the Digoxin

Digibind

Narcan

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

A) Hydration with IV fluids:
IV hydration may be ordered to improve kidney function and help facilitate the excretion of excess digoxin from the body. Digoxin toxicity is often related to impaired renal clearance, so improving hydration can promote renal perfusion and enhance the elimination of the drug. This is a common supportive measure to help in managing digoxin toxicity.

B) Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges:
This is incorrect because the patient's digoxin level is 4 ng/ml, which is significantly above the normal therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 ng/ml. A level of 4 ng/ml is toxic, and immediate action is required. Symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting are indicative of digoxin toxicity, and they necessitate prompt intervention.

C) Hold the Digoxin:
In the case of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to hold the digoxin. Digoxin should be discontinued immediately if toxicity is suspected, as continuing the medication could worsen symptoms like bradycardia and increase the risk of potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. This step is essential to prevent further complications.

D) Digibind:
Digibind (Digoxin immune fab) is a digoxin-specific antibody used in cases of severe digoxin toxicity or overdose. It binds to the digoxin molecules and helps to neutralize its effects. Given the elevated level of digoxin (4 ng/ml) and the presence of symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting, Digibind is likely to be ordered to reverse the effects of the toxicity.

E) Narcan:
Narcan (naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. There is no indication for the use of Narcan in this scenario, as digoxin toxicity does not involve opioid overdose. This intervention would be inappropriate and irrelevant to the management of digoxin toxicity.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Bradycardia:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by blocking the action of acetylcholine. While anticholinergic medications can affect heart rate, bradycardia is not a common side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine may have the opposite effect, potentially causing tachycardia (increased heart rate).

B) Excess salivation:
Excessive salivation is typically a symptom of Parkinson's disease itself, due to difficulty swallowing, rather than a side effect of benztropine. In fact, benztropine, as an anticholinergic agent, generally reduces salivation (anticholinergic effect), so this side effect is unlikely to occur with benztropine therapy.

C) Urinary retention:
Benztropine, being an anticholinergic drug, can inhibit the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder, leading to urinary retention. This is a common and serious side effect of anticholinergic drugs like benztropine. Urinary retention can lead to discomfort, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and kidney problems if not addressed.

D) Diarrhea:
Benztropine is more likely to cause constipation rather than diarrhea due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications often slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation.

A. A corticosteroid such as fluticasone B. A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol C. A short-acting, beta 2 agonist such as albuterol D. Methylxanthines such Theophylline

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone:
While corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, are effective for managing chronic asthma and preventing inflammation over time, they are not the first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack. Corticosteroids are typically used for long-term control and maintenance therapy, not for rapid relief of symptoms in an acute exacerbation. Immediate relief is needed in acute situations, which corticosteroids alone do not provide.

B) A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol:
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs), such as salmeterol, are used for maintenance therapy to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used for the immediate treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation. They take longer to start working, and their role is to provide prolonged bronchodilation over time, not to relieve sudden bronchoconstriction.

C) A short-acting beta 2 agonist such as albuterol:
During an acute asthma attack, the immediate goal is to relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Short-acting beta-2 agonists like albuterol are the first-line treatment because they quickly relax the smooth muscles of the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Albuterol works within minutes, providing rapid relief from the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

D) Methylxanthines such as Theophylline:
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline) were once used for asthma management but are no longer considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations due to their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for toxicity. While theophylline can provide bronchodilation, its onset of action is slower than that of beta-agonists like albuterol, and it is generally reserved for more chronic management of asthma or severe cases where other medications are not effective.

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A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following side effects of benztropine?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client in the emergency room begins to experience an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used as initial treatment?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

What condition do these results indicate? A nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas lab values on her newly admitted elderly client. The ABG results are as follows: pH 7.21, PaCO2 50, HCO3 26.

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