A patient admitted with an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is receiving eptifibatide, a glycoprotein (GP) IIb IIIa inhibitor.
Which assessment finding poses the greatest risk to the patient?
Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg.
Presence of hematemesis.
Incontinence with blood in urine.
Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is not typically considered a risk for patients receiving eptifibatide. While eptifibatide can cause hypotension, a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is within normal limits.
Choice B rationale
The presence of hematemesis, or vomiting blood, poses the greatest risk to the patient. Eptifibatide is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that prevents platelets from clumping together by blocking the action of certain proteins. This can increase the risk of bleeding, including gastrointestinal bleeding, which could manifest as hematemesis.
Choice C rationale
Incontinence with blood in the urine could indicate a urinary tract infection or other urinary system issue, but it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
Choice D rationale
Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli is a serious symptom that could indicate a number of issues, including neurological damage or severe illness. However, it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s important to assess all aspects of the patient’s condition, a warm left lower extremity does not necessarily indicate a right hip fracture. It could be related to other conditions, such as deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis.
Choice B rationale
The presence of strong bilateral pedal pulses is a positive sign and does not indicate a hip fracture. It suggests that the patient has good peripheral circulation.
Choice C rationale
The ability to wiggle the toes when the sole of the right foot is tickled does not necessarily indicate a hip fracture. This is a normal response and suggests that the patient has intact sensory and motor function in the foot.
Choice D rationale
A right leg that is externally rotated and shorter than the left is a classic sign of a hip fracture. This occurs because the fracture can cause the femoral head to tilt and rotate outward, making the leg appear shorter.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assisting the spouse and carefully giving the patient small sips of water may seem like a compassionate action. However, it could potentially lead to aspiration if the patient’s swallowing reflex is compromised, which is common in stroke patients.
Choice B rationale
While obtaining thickening powder before providing any more fluids can help prevent aspiration in patients with dysphagia, it is not the immediate action the nurse should take. The nurse first needs to assess the patient’s swallowing reflex before deciding on the appropriate intervention.
Choice C rationale
The nurse should ask the spouse to stop and assess the patient’s swallowing reflex. This is the most immediate and appropriate action. Stroke patients often have impaired swallowing reflexes, which can lead to aspiration if not properly managed. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine the best course of action to ensure the patient’s safety.
Choice D rationale
Giving the spouse a straw to help facilitate the patient’s drinking is not the best course of action. Straws can increase the risk of aspiration in patients with impaired swallowing reflexes. The nurse should first assess the patient’s swallowing reflex before deciding on the appropriate intervention.
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