A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder began taking citalopram (Celexa) 4 days ago. The patient now says, "This medicine isn't working." The nurse's best intervention would be to:
Explain the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms.
Discuss with the health care provider the need to increase the dose.
Critically assess the patient for symptoms of improvement.
Reassure the patient that the medication will be effective soon.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Citalopram, an SSRI, increases serotonin levels, requiring 4-6 weeks to upregulate serotonin receptors and modulate prefrontal-amygdala circuits for mood improvement. Explaining this delay addresses patient expectations, reducing frustration and enhancing adherence by clarifying the neurochemical timeline of antidepressant action.
Choice B reason: Increasing the dose after 4 days is premature, as SSRIs like citalopram require weeks to alter serotonin signaling and neural plasticity. Premature dose escalation risks side effects like serotonin syndrome without addressing the expected therapeutic lag, making it an inappropriate intervention.
Choice C reason: Assessing for improvement after 4 days is unlikely to yield significant findings, as citalopram’s serotonin modulation takes weeks to impact mood via prefrontal cortex changes. This approach may reinforce the patient’s frustration without addressing the neurochemical basis of the delayed response.
Choice D reason: Reassuring effectiveness without explaining the delay is misleading. Citalopram’s action on serotonin pathways requires time for receptor upregulation and neural circuit adaptation. This vague reassurance does not educate the patient on the neurochemical timeline, potentially reducing trust and adherence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["400"]
Explanation
Step 1: Convert the infusion time from minutes to hours.
15 minutes ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 0.25 hours
Result at step 1 = 0.25 hours
Step 2: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr.
100 mL ÷ 0.25 hours = 400 mL/hr
Result at step 2 = 400 mL/hr
Step 3: Round to the nearest whole number.
400 mL/hr is already a whole number.
Result at step 3 = 400 mL/hr
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Notifying the provider ensures legal and medical oversight for restraints, addressing self-harm risk driven by serotonin deficits and amygdala hyperactivity. This prioritizes patient safety and evaluates underlying psychiatric causes, ensuring appropriate intervention to stabilize neural dysregulation.
Choice B reason: Advising cafeteria staff is a preventive measure but not the priority during acute self-harm. Serotonin-driven impulsivity requires immediate medical assessment, and addressing utensil access is secondary to stabilizing the patient’s acute neurochemical crisis.
Choice C reason: Investigating utensil acquisition is important for future prevention but not urgent. The patient’s self-harm, driven by serotonin deficits and amygdala hyperactivity, requires immediate medical intervention to ensure safety and address acute psychiatric needs first.
Choice D reason: Notifying the house supervisor is administrative, not clinical, and delays direct intervention. Self-harm reflects serotonin dysregulation and amygdala-driven impulsivity, requiring immediate provider assessment for restraints and psychiatric evaluation, making this less urgent.
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