Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (Free-Trial)

Which finding indicates the successful completion of an individual’s grieving process?

18 months after the spouse’s death, a person says, "I never cry or have feelings of loss even though we were always very close."

After 15 months, a widowed person realistically remembers both the pleasures and disappointments of the relationship.

3 years after the death, a person talks about their spouse as if the spouse was still alive and weeps when others mention their spouse’s name.

For 2 years, a person has kept the deceased spouse’s belongings in their usual places.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Absence of grief feelings after 18 months may indicate denial, not resolution, as grief involves amygdala-driven emotional processing. Suppressing loss via prefrontal cortex inhibition suggests unresolved cortisol and serotonin dysregulation, not successful grieving.

Choice B reason: Realistic recall of both positive and negative aspects after 15 months reflects grief resolution, with balanced amygdala-prefrontal cortex processing. This indicates serotonin-mediated emotional integration, allowing acceptance without excessive cortisol-driven distress, marking successful grieving.

Choice C reason: Talking as if the spouse is alive after 3 years suggests prolonged grief, with persistent amygdala-driven emotional distress and cortisol elevation. This indicates unresolved neural dysregulation, not successful grieving, as acceptance is not achieved.

Choice D reason: Keeping belongings unchanged for 2 years suggests prolonged grief, reflecting amygdala-driven attachment and cortisol surges. This indicates unresolved emotional processing, not successful grieving, as serotonin-mediated acceptance and neural integration are incomplete.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Marriage counseling addresses situational crises like divorce, not maturational crises, which involve developmental transitions. It targets interpersonal conflict, not the normative stress of life stages, missing the neuroadaptive challenges of maturational growth like childbirth.

Choice B reason: Recognizing relapse symptoms is relevant for chronic mental illness, not maturational crises. Relapse involves dopamine or serotonin dysregulation, not the normative developmental stress of life transitions, making this intervention unrelated to maturational coping needs.

Choice C reason: Selecting a group home addresses a situational crisis for a troubled teen, not a maturational one. Maturational crises involve normative developmental stages, like childbirth, requiring anticipatory guidance, not reactive interventions for behavioral issues.

Choice D reason: Childbirth classes prepare couples for the maturational crisis of parenthood, a normative life transition. They reduce stress by enhancing prefrontal cortex-mediated coping skills and serotonin-driven emotional regulation, supporting adaptation to developmental changes, making this the best intervention.

A. Claims by family, friends, or coworkers that the client is depressed. B. Demonstrated examples of unwise decisions. C. A significant decrease in appetite. D. Self-report of being sad after a break-up.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Claims by others are not a diagnostic criterion for major depressive disorder. Diagnosis relies on objective symptoms like anhedonia or appetite changes, driven by serotonin and dopamine dysregulation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex, not subjective external observations.

Choice B reason: Unwise decisions are not a specific symptom of major depressive disorder. Impaired decision-making may occur due to prefrontal cortex dysfunction, but diagnostic criteria focus on mood, appetite, or sleep changes, reflecting serotonin and norepinephrine imbalances.

Choice C reason: A significant decrease in appetite is a core diagnostic symptom of major depressive disorder, linked to serotonin dysregulation affecting hypothalamic appetite regulation and amygdala-driven emotional distress, contributing to reduced food intake and weight loss in affected individuals.

Choice D reason: Sadness after a break-up is a normal emotional response, not a diagnostic criterion for major depressive disorder. Diagnosis requires pervasive symptoms like appetite loss or anhedonia, driven by sustained serotonin and dopamine imbalances, not situational sadness.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Which finding indicates the successful completion of an individual’s grieving process?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A primary intervention strategy for coping with a maturational crisis includes:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. One clinical symptom of this diagnosis is what?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The plan of care for a patient in the manic state of bipolar disorder should include which intervention?

A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg IV bolus. The amount available from the pharmacy is 40 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

A client with bipolar disorder has advanced lithium toxicity with a lithium level of 1.7 mEq/L. Which symptom would the nurse expect to assess?

A hospitalized client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving antipsychotic medications. While assessing the client, a nurse identifies signs and symptoms of a dystonic reaction. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer?

The most appropriate response by the nurse when a despondent patient says "Nothing matters anymore" would be:

A patient states, "I feel detached from myself and weird all the time. It is as though I am looking at life through a cloudy window. Everything seems unreal. It really messes up things at work and school." This scenario is most suggestive of which health problem?

A client is brought to the emergency department after exhibiting vital sign instability, diaphoresis, shivering, incoordination, hyperreflexia, hyperpyrexia, and diarrhea. The client is taking paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. Which condition should the nurse most likely suspect?

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 10 hours. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round to the nearest whole number.)