The nurse preparing to teach a patient diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) about recommended psychotherapy and psychopharmacology will discuss:
Attachment-Based Therapy and Mirtazapine (Remeron).
Dialectical Behavior Therapy and Lorazepam (Ativan).
Cognitive Processing Therapy and Sertraline (Zoloft).
Applied Behavior Analysis and Atomoxetine (Strattera).
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Attachment-Based Therapy focuses on interpersonal relationships, not trauma-specific processing, and is less effective for PTSD’s amygdala-driven fear memories. Mirtazapine enhances serotonin and norepinephrine but lacks strong evidence for PTSD, as it primarily addresses depression by modulating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors, not trauma-specific neural hyperactivity.
Choice B reason: Dialectical Behavior Therapy targets emotional regulation for personality disorders, not PTSD’s trauma-specific memories. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, enhances GABA activity but is not recommended for PTSD, as it may suppress rather than process trauma-related amygdala hyperactivity, risking dependency and impairing long-term recovery.
Choice C reason: Cognitive Processing Therapy restructures trauma-related cognitive distortions, reducing amygdala hyperactivity and enhancing prefrontal control in PTSD. Sertraline, an SSRI, increases serotonin levels, stabilizing mood and reducing hyperarousal by modulating amygdala-prefrontal circuits, making it a first-line treatment for PTSD’s neurochemical and cognitive symptoms.
Choice D reason: Applied Behavior Analysis is used for autism, not PTSD, and does not address trauma-related neural changes. Atomoxetine, a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, targets ADHD by enhancing prefrontal norepinephrine but lacks efficacy for PTSD’s amygdala-driven fear responses, making it unsuitable for trauma treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["400"]
Explanation
Step 1: Convert the infusion time from minutes to hours.
15 minutes ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 0.25 hours
Result at step 1 = 0.25 hours
Step 2: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr.
100 mL ÷ 0.25 hours = 400 mL/hr
Result at step 2 = 400 mL/hr
Step 3: Round to the nearest whole number.
400 mL/hr is already a whole number.
Result at step 3 = 400 mL/hr
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This response dismisses the client’s delusion, potentially increasing agitation. Schizophrenia’s mesolimbic dopamine excess drives delusional beliefs, and invalidation can heighten amygdala-driven distress, disrupting therapeutic rapport and failing to address the emotional impact of the psychotic experience.
Choice B reason: Labeling the client’s thinking as illogical is confrontational, risking escalation of paranoia. Dopamine hyperactivity in schizophrenia sustains delusions, and challenging them directly may increase amygdala activation, worsening distress and undermining trust in the therapeutic relationship.
Choice C reason: Stating the client has a thought disorder is non-therapeutic, as it dismisses the delusion without empathy. Schizophrenia’s dopamine-driven delusions require validation of feelings to reduce amygdala hyperactivity, not intellectual correction, which may alienate the client and hinder engagement.
Choice D reason: Acknowledging the delusion’s emotional impact without affirming it validates the client’s distress, reducing amygdala-driven anxiety. This therapeutic approach aligns with schizophrenia’s dopamine dysregulation, fostering trust and engagement by addressing the emotional experience of the delusion empathetically.
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