A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy.
What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?
To decrease her blood pressure.
To decrease her tidal volume.
To prevent her from becoming dehydrated.
To prevent her from having convulsions.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions. Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions. However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure. It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume. It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration. It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. The reason for the patient’s visit at this time.
This information will help the nurse assess the patient’s motivation, readiness, and urgency for contraception.
It will also help the nurse tailor the education and counseling to the patient’s specific needs and preferences.
Choice A is wrong because the amount of sexual experience that the patient has had is not relevant to determine the patient’s knowledge base.
It may also make the patient feel uncomfortable or judged.
Choice B is wrong because the type of contraceptive that the patient’s friends are using is not a reliable source of information.
Different methods may have different advantages and disadvantages for different people.
The nurse should provide evidence-based information and guidance on various options.
Choice D is wrong because the method of contraception that the patient believes will provide protection from sexually transmitted diseases may not be accurate or effective.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
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