A patient has been prescribed antacids and an antibiotic to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. The diagnosis is most likely

colon polyps.

atrophic gastritis

intussusception of the small bowel

peptic ulcer disease

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Colon polyps: Colon polyps are not treated with antibiotics or antacids and are unrelated to Helicobacter pylori infection.

B. Atrophic gastritis: Atrophic gastritis involves chronic inflammation and thinning of the stomach lining and is not typically treated with antibiotics for Helicobacter pylori.

C. Intussusception of the small bowel: Intussusception is a condition where part of the intestine telescopes into itself and is not related to Helicobacter pylori.

D. Peptic ulcer disease: Peptic ulcer disease, especially gastric or duodenal ulcers, is commonly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection, which is treated with antibiotics and antacids.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.

B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.

C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.

D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.

A. Esophageal varices. B. Colorectal cancer. C. Inflammatory bowel disease. D. Appendicitis

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Esophageal varices: Coffee-ground emesis suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which is often due to ruptured esophageal varices in patients with cirrhosis.

B. Colorectal cancer: This condition typically presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms such as changes in bowel habits or blood in the stool, not coffee-ground emesis.

C. Inflammatory bowel disease: This condition can cause gastrointestinal bleeding but is more commonly associated with symptoms like diarrhea and abdominal pain rather than coffee-ground emesis.

D. Appendicitis: This condition typically presents with right lower quadrant pain, not upper GI bleeding.

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A patient has been prescribed antacids and an antibiotic to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. The diagnosis is most likely

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient, diagnosed with alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis, presents to his healthcare provider because he vomited something that looked like coffee grounds. Which health problem would the care team first suspect?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of a cerebellar brain attack?

A patient has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) for several years. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse of a potential complication from UC?

Which assessment finding is expected for a patient just diagnosed with viral (aseptic) meningitis?

A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Which clinical manifestations are expected?

Which laboratory data would alert the nurse to the possibility of hypercalcemia in the patient recently diagnosed with osteoporosis?

A patient with diabetes mellitus (DM) developed a serum glucose of 900 and an elevated serum osmolality. The patient then became unconscious. What pathological process most likely caused the altered neurologic status?

An elderly patient is hospitalized with several problems. His medical history includes uncontrolled hypertension and Type II diabetes mellitus (DM). A HbA1c is measured This laboratory test measures the