A patient has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which response best explains the etiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations.

There is a well-defined genetic cause.

Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms.

Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations: This statement is true but does not explain the etiology of MS. Geographic prevalence does not address the underlying cause.

B. There is a well-defined genetic cause: While genetics may play a role in MS, there is no single well-defined genetic cause for the disease.

C. Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is an autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system, leading to the signs and symptoms of the disease.

D. Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is primarily caused by demyelination rather than ischemic lesions.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Obesity, age over 40, and female gender: While obesity and age can be risk factors for GERD, gender alone is not a significant factor. Excessive alcohol consumption, as indicated in option D, is a stronger link to GERD.

B. Accelerated gastric emptying: This is incorrect. GERD is more commonly associated with delayed gastric emptying or increased acid production rather than accelerated gastric emptying.

C. Incompetent rectal sphincter: This is incorrect. GERD is associated with an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, not the rectal sphincter.

D. Drinking 12 cans of beer per day: Excessive alcohol consumption can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and increase the risk of GERD by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.

A. Ischemia of the brain tissue is causing cellular injury, swelling and malfunction of the contralateral side B. The functioning of the right cranial nerve controlling facial movement is compromised by cerebral edema C. The sensorimotor tracts leading from the brain to the body decussate and control the arm and leg on the same side as the lesion, D. The corticospinal tracts leading from the brain to the body decussate and control the ipsilateral arm and leg.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Ischemia of the brain tissue is causing cellular injury, swelling, and malfunction of the contralateral side: Hemiparesis occurs on the side opposite to the brain lesion due to the crossing (decussation) of motor pathways.

B. The functioning of the right cranial nerve controlling facial movement is compromised by cerebral edema: While facial nerve involvement can cause drooping, the hemiparesis suggests a central (brain) rather than peripheral issue.

C. The sensorimotor tracts leading from the brain to the body decussate and control the arm and leg on the same side as the lesion: This is incorrect because the tracts control the contralateral side of the body.

D. The corticospinal tracts leading from the brain to the body decussate and control the ipsilateral arm and leg: This is incorrect; the corticospinal tracts control the contralateral side.

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A patient has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which response best explains the etiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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