A patient has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which response best explains the etiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations.
There is a well-defined genetic cause.
Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms.
Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations: This statement is true but does not explain the etiology of MS. Geographic prevalence does not address the underlying cause.
B. There is a well-defined genetic cause: While genetics may play a role in MS, there is no single well-defined genetic cause for the disease.
C. Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is an autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system, leading to the signs and symptoms of the disease.
D. Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is primarily caused by demyelination rather than ischemic lesions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Steroid injections will be administered daily: This is incorrect; steroid therapy may exacerbate Cushing's disease. The condition is often due to excessive production of cortisol, not a deficiency.
B. Weight gain and edema are present: Hyperaldosteronism, often associated with Cushing's syndrome, leads to sodium and water retention, resulting in weight gain and edema.
C. Painful leg cramps are common from hyperkalemia: Hyperaldosteronism typically causes hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia, leading to muscle cramps, not leg pain from hyperkalemia.
D. Decreased amount of body hair is frequently seen: Cushing's disease often leads to hirsutism (increased body hair), not a decrease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
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