A patient is ordered 1 mg/kg of furosemide IV push. The patient weights 121 Ibs. The medication is supplied 40 mg/10 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (round to the nearest tenth)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["13.8"]

The patient weighs 121 lbs, which is approximately 55 kg (121 ÷ 2.2).

The prescribed dose is 1 mg/kg, so the patient requires 55 mg of furosemide. The medication is supplied at a concentration of 40 mg per 10 mL.

To find out how many mL of furosemide to administer, set up a proportion: 40 mg is to 10 mL as 55 mg is to X mL.

Therefore, the nurse should administer 13.8 mL of furosemide, rounding to the nearest tenth.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.

A. 119 seconds B. 98 seconds C. 37 seconds D. 69 seconds

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A value of 119 seconds would indicate a therapeutic or even elevated level of heparin, as it is much higher than the normal aPTT range.
B. A value of 98 seconds is still above the normal aPTT range, suggesting that the heparin level is therapeutic, or even too high, but not sub-therapeutic.
C. This is just slightly above the normal range and might be considered a therapeutic range for someone
on heparin, but it’s not sub-therapeutic.
D. This aPTT value is above the normal range but likely not high enough to indicate therapeutic heparin levels, which should typically be between 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal aPTT. A sub-therapeutic level could be indicated with a lower value.

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A patient is ordered 1 mg/kg of furosemide IV push. The patient weights 121 Ibs. The medication is supplied 40 mg/10 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (round to the nearest tenth)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is severely dyspneic and extremely anxious. The nurse anticipates that increased cardiac output and decreased anxiety may be promoted by the IV administration of:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client receiving a heparin infusion for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following lab results would indicate a sub-therapeutic level? An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of :……. (normal value: 25-35 seconds)

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A patient is ordered 1 mg/kg of furosemide IV push. The patient weights 121 Ibs. The medication is supplied 40 mg/10 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (round to the nearest tenth)

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