A patient is receiving gentamicin every 12 hours IVPB for an infection.
The nurse has administered the 0900 dose, which is prescribed to run over 1 hour. The physician prescribed peak and trough levels to be drawn.
When should the nurse expect to draw the peak level?
0930
1000
2030
2100
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Drawing the peak level at 0930, which is 30 minutes after the start of the infusion, would be too early. The medication would not have had enough time to reach its peak level in the blood.
Choice B rationale
The peak level of gentamicin is typically evaluated 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion. Since the infusion is administered over 1 hour, the peak level would be expected to be drawn at 10001.
Choice C rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2030, which is 12 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Choice D rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2100, which is 12.5 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rotating injection sites when administering insulin glargine is important to prevent lipodystrophy, a condition that can affect insulin absorption.
Choice B rationale
Insulin glargine has no peak of action, which reduces the risk of hypoglycemia. This is a key feature of long-acting insulins like glargine.
Choice C rationale
Food does not need to be consumed within 30 minutes after injection of insulin glargine. This is a characteristic of rapid-acting insulins, not long-acting insulins like glargine.
Choice D rationale
Checking for microalbuminuria if blood glucose levels are above 280 mg/dL is a good practice. Microalbuminuria can be an early sign of kidney damage, which can occur with poorly controlled diabetes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering the PRN antianxiety medication is not the most appropriate next step. The client’s symptoms—shortness of breath, anxiety, restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation—are indicative of a potential pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication of deep vein thrombosis. While anxiety can be a symptom of a pulmonary embolism, treating it without addressing the underlying cause could delay necessary medical intervention.
Choice B rationale
Calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate next step. The client’s symptoms suggest a potential pulmonary embolism, a serious and life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention. The rapid response team can provide the necessary urgent care.
Choice C rationale
Increasing the intravenous infusion rate is not the most appropriate next step. While hydration is important, it would not address the immediate life-threatening situation. The client’s symptoms suggest a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate medical intervention.
Choice D rationale
Preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the most appropriate next step. While the client’s decreased oxygen saturation and increased respiratory rate suggest respiratory distress, the priority should be to address the potential pulmonary embolism. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary later depending on the client’s response to treatment.
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