A patient is receiving gentamicin every 12 hours IVPB for an infection.
The nurse has administered the 0900 dose, which is prescribed to run over 1 hour. The physician prescribed peak and trough levels to be drawn.
When should the nurse expect to draw the peak level?
0930
1000
2030
2100
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Drawing the peak level at 0930, which is 30 minutes after the start of the infusion, would be too early. The medication would not have had enough time to reach its peak level in the blood.
Choice B rationale
The peak level of gentamicin is typically evaluated 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion. Since the infusion is administered over 1 hour, the peak level would be expected to be drawn at 10001.
Choice C rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2030, which is 12 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Choice D rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2100, which is 12.5 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s important for clients to understand their medications, not having received proper education on this medication is not a reason to withhold cefazolin.
Choice B rationale
Completing a full course of an aminoglycoside antibiotic does not contraindicate the use of cefazolin.
Choice C rationale
Being afebrile does not contraindicate the use of cefazolin. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not just to reduce fever.
Choice D rationale
A prior anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is a contraindication for administering cefazolin. Cefazolin is a cephalosporin, and there is a risk of cross-reactivity and potential allergic reaction in clients who have a history of severe penicillin allergy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when blood sugar levels are extremely high. The primary treatment for HHS is intravenous fluids and insulin. Specifically, 0.9% saline solution IV is often used initially to restore volume and correct severe dehydration.
Choice A rationale
Administration of Glucagon is not the primary treatment for HHS. Glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels and would not be beneficial in a situation where blood glucose is already extremely high.
Choice B rationale
Dextrose 50% is a concentrated glucose solution and would not be appropriate in the treatment of HHS, where blood glucose levels are already dangerously high.
Choice C rationale
While IV fluids are a crucial part of the treatment for HHS, 0.45% Normal Saline (also known as half-normal saline) is a hypotonic solution and is not typically the first choice for fluid resuscitation in HHS. The preferred initial fluid is often 0.9% saline (normal saline), which is isotonic.
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