A patient presents to a primary care provider reporting fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and decreased consciousness. History includes a previously treated sinusitis. Which medical diagnosis is best supported by this assessment data?
Seizures with auras
Parkinson's disease
Bacterial meningitis
Migraines
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Seizures with auras can involve symptoms such as sensory disturbances before the seizure event, but they do not typically present with fever, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), or decreased consciousness. These symptoms suggest an infectious or inflammatory process, not a seizure disorder.
Choice B reason: Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, stiffness, and bradykinesia (slowness of movement). It does not present with acute fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, or altered consciousness, nor is it associated with a history of sinusitis. The symptoms described are more indicative of an infectious condition rather than a chronic degenerative disease.
Choice C reason: Bacterial meningitis is an infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord (meninges). It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and altered consciousness. The history of sinusitis suggests a possible route of infection, as bacteria from the sinuses can spread to the meninges. The clinical presentation strongly supports the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt treatment.
Choice D reason: Migraines can cause severe headaches and may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, they do not typically cause fever, nuchal rigidity, or decreased consciousness. The presence of fever and neck stiffness suggests an infectious etiology rather than a primary headache disorder like migraines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Autosomal-recessive disorders affect both males and females equally because the gene in question is located on one of the autosomes (non-sex chromosomes). Each individual has two copies of each autosomal gene, one from each parent. An autosomal-recessive disorder manifests when an individual inherits two copies of a mutant gene, one from each parent. Therefore, gender does not influence the likelihood of being affected.
Choice B reason: Autosomal-dominant disorders also affect both males and females equally. These disorders occur when a single copy of a mutant gene on an autosome is sufficient to cause the disorder. Since autosomes are present in both males and females equally, the likelihood of inheriting an autosomal-dominant disorder is not influenced by gender.
Choice C reason: Chromosomal nondisjunction refers to errors in cell division that result in an abnormal number of chromosomes. While some conditions resulting from chromosomal nondisjunction can show gender bias (such as Turner syndrome affecting females and Klinefelter syndrome affecting males), it is not accurate to say that males are generally more likely than females to be affected by chromosomal nondisjunction.
Choice D reason: X-linked (sex-linked) disorders are more likely to affect males than females because the gene causing the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY), while females have two X chromosomes (XX). If a male inherits a mutant gene on the X chromosome, he will express the disorder because he does not have a second X chromosome to mask the effect. In contrast, females would need two copies of the mutant gene (one on each X chromosome) to express the disorder, making it less likely for them to be affected.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: There is not a 25% chance that the offspring will be a carrier. In the case of recessive disorders, if one parent is affected (homozygous recessive) and the other parent is a carrier (heterozygous), the offspring has a different probability of being a carrier or affected.
Choice B reason: There is a 50% chance that the offspring will be a carrier. If the mother is affected (aa) and the father is a carrier (Aa), each child has a 50% chance of inheriting one recessive allele (a) from the mother and one normal allele (A) from the father, making them a carrier (Aa).
Choice C reason: There is not a 75% chance that the offspring will be a carrier. The probability of the offspring being a carrier or affected follows specific Mendelian inheritance patterns, which do not result in a 75% carrier rate.
Choice D reason: There is not a 100% chance that the offspring will be a carrier. While there is a significant likelihood of the offspring being affected or a carrier, it is not guaranteed that all offspring will be carriers.
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