A patient presents with numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and a positive Phalen's test. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to address the underlying cause of these symptoms?

Administering oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation systemically.

Applying heat therapy to the affected area to increase blood flow.

Wrist splinting to maintain a neutral position during sleep.

Performing finger stretching exercises to enhance flexibility.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Oral corticosteroids may reduce inflammation but are not typically the first choice for managing carpal tunnel syndrome.
B.   Heat therapy is not the most appropriate intervention, as it may worsen symptoms in some cases of carpal tunnel syndrome.
C.   Wrist splinting to maintain a neutral position during sleep helps alleviate pressure on the median nerve and is a common intervention for carpal tunnel syndrome.
D.   Finger stretching exercises are not typically recommended, as they may increase irritation to the nerve.

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Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

A. Frequent headaches can be a symptom of hypertension but are not specific to poorly managed hypertension.
B. Blood pressure consistently at goal indicates good management of hypertension.
C. Normal renal function tests suggest that there has been no damage to the kidneys, a common consequence of poorly controlled hypertension.
D. Steady weight with no recent gain suggests good management of overall health, which can contribute to better blood pressure control.
E. Proteinuria indicates kidney damage, often a result of uncontrolled hypertension.
F. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is a sign of chronic hypertension and indicates poor management, as it results from the heart working harder to pump blood against increased pressure.
G. Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam indicates that there is no evidence of hypertensive retinopathy, suggesting good hypertension management.

A. Decreased blood pressure B. Metabolic acidosis C. Hypocalcemia D. Increased urine specific gravity

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decreased blood pressure is not typically associated with contrast-induced nephropathy. In fact, patients may present with normal or elevated blood pressure, especially in those with a history of chronic hypertension.
B. Metabolic acidosis is a common complication of acute kidney injury (AKI), including contrast-induced nephropathy. As kidney function declines, the kidneys' ability to excrete acids diminishes, leading to the accumulation of acids in the blood and resulting in metabolic acidosis.
C. Hypocalcemia is not a common feature of contrast-induced nephropathy. While AKI can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate balance, hypocalcemia is not typically a predominant finding.
D. Increased urine specific gravity may not be a significant finding in contrast-induced nephropathy. This condition generally leads to impaired kidney function, which may present with urine output changes, but urine specific gravity can vary depending on the stage of AKI.

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A patient presents with numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and a positive Phalen's test. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to address the underlying cause of these symptoms?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension? (Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

A 72-year-old patient with a history of chronic hypertension is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to contrast-induced nephropathy. Which clinical finding would most likely be present in this patient?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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