A patient who has been diagnosed with depression asks why the provider has not ordered a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor to treat the disorder. The nurse will explain to the patient that MAO inhibitors
are no longer approved for treating depression.
are more expensive than other antidepressants.
require strict dietary restrictions.
can cause profound hypotension.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Are no longer approved for treating depression: MAO inhibitors (MAOIs) are still approved and used to treat depression, especially in cases where other medications have not been effective. They are not considered obsolete, though their use has become less common due to the availability of safer, more tolerable options. This is not the primary reason why MAOIs may not be prescribed.
B) Are more expensive than other antidepressants: While cost can be a factor in medication choice, it is not the primary reason why MAO inhibitors are less frequently prescribed for depression. There are other more significant concerns, such as side effects and dietary restrictions, that make other medications a preferred first-line choice.
C) Require strict dietary restrictions: This is the most accurate explanation. MAO inhibitors can cause dangerous interactions with certain foods that contain high levels of tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and fermented products. Consuming these foods while on an MAOI can lead to a hypertensive crisis, which is a life-threatening condition. Because of these dietary restrictions, patients on MAOIs must adhere to a strict diet, which can be challenging to manage.
D) Can cause profound hypotension: While hypotension can occur as a side effect of MAOIs, it is not the most significant concern. The more serious risk with MAOIs is the potential for a hypertensive crisis due to dietary interactions with tyramine-containing foods, rather than hypotension. Therefore, the dietary restrictions are a more pressing issue than the risk of hypotension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) A 41-year-old man with kidney stones:
Kidney stones primarily affect the urinary system, and while the kidneys play a role in drug excretion, kidney stones themselves do not directly interfere with drug metabolism. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in the liver, so alterations due to kidney stones would be less likely. The liver is where most drug metabolism takes place, so drug metabolism in this case would likely be unaffected by kidney stones.
B) A 62-year-old woman with acute renal failure:
Acute renal failure impacts the kidneys' ability to filter and excrete drugs, but it doesn't directly affect the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. Renal failure can lead to drug accumulation due to decreased clearance, but metabolism (primarily liver function) is not usually altered unless the patient also has hepatic dysfunction.
C) A 35-year-old woman with cervical cancer:
Cervical cancer itself does not directly affect drug metabolism. While cancer treatments like chemotherapy or radiation therapy can affect liver and kidney function (which could impact drug metabolism), cervical cancer itself does not typically alter the metabolic pathways that drugs undergo in the body.
D) A 50-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver:
Cirrhosis of the liver significantly impacts the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. The liver is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism, and cirrhosis can lead to a decreased ability to break down medications, potentially resulting in drug toxicity or suboptimal therapeutic effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Hypothalamus and the medulla: While the hypothalamus and medulla play critical roles in regulating autonomic functions and overall sympathetic nervous system activity, the primary origin of the sympathetic nervous system's neural impulses comes from the spinal cord, specifically in the thoracic and lumbar regions. The hypothalamus and medulla are involved in coordinating and regulating sympathetic activity rather than being the origin of the impulses themselves.
B) Cranium and sacral area of the spinal cord: The cranium and sacral regions are primarily associated with the parasympathetic nervous system, not the sympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system's nerve fibers arise from the brainstem and the sacral region, while the sympathetic fibers originate from the thoracic and lumbar areas.
C) Thoracic and lumbar section of the spinal cord: The sympathetic nervous system originates in the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord, which includes the thoracic and lumbar segments (T1-L2). These regions house the preganglionic neurons whose axons exit the spinal cord and synapse in sympathetic ganglia, leading to the sympathetic effects on organs and tissues. This makes the thoracic and lumbar sections the correct location for the origin of SNS impulses.
D) Nerve membrane: The nerve membrane, or the cellular membrane of individual neurons, is not the location where impulses originate. The origin of the impulses is in the central nervous system (CNS), specifically in the spinal cord for the sympathetic system, not at the level of the individual nerve membranes.
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