A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?
Insert two large-bore IV catheters.
Provide oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask.
Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. Initiate continuous
electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.
The Correct Answer is B
Cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, and hypotension are signs of shock, indicating inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. The immediate priority is to ensure adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues. Providing oxygen at 100% via a non-rebreather mask helps increase the patient's oxygen saturation and improve tissue oxygenation.
While all the options mentioned are important in the management of a patient in shock, oxygenation takes priority as it directly addresses compromised tissue perfusion and oxygenation.
A. Inserting two large-bore IV catheters in (option A) is incorrect because: Establishing intravenous access is crucial for fluid resuscitation and administration of medications, but it can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
C. Drawing blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions in (option C) is incorrect because Blood typing and crossmatching are important for potential blood transfusions but should not be the first action in this critical situation.
D. Initiating continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring in (option D) is incorrect because Continuous ECG monitoring is important for assessing cardiac rhythm and detecting any dysrhythmias, but ensuring oxygenation should be the initial priority.
Therefore, in a patient presenting with cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, and hypotension, the nurse should first provide oxygen at 100% via a non-rebreather mask to address inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Assessing tissue perfusion is crucial in evaluating the adequacy of oxygen and nutrient delivery to the body's tissues. While multiple factors contribute to tissue perfusion, the options provided in choice B are key indicators:
Level of consciousness: Altered mental status or changes in the patient's level of consciousness can be a sign of impaired cerebral perfusion, which reflects overall tissue perfusion.
Urine output: Monitoring urine output provides information about renal perfusion and kidney function. Decreased urine output can be indicative of inadequate tissue perfusion.
Lactate level: Lactate is a by-product of anaerobic metabolism that accumulates when there is insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion and cellular oxygen debt.
A. Pupil response, pulse pressure, and urine output in (option A) are incorrect because While pupil response and pulse pressure may provide some information about perfusion, they do not encompass a comprehensive assessment of tissue perfusion. Additionally, assessing urine output is important, but it alone may not provide a complete picture of tissue perfusion status.
C. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations in (option C) are incorrect because Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are important vital signs to monitor, but they do not solely indicate tissue perfusion. Hypotension, for example, can be a late sign of inadequate tissue perfusion.
D. Breath sounds, heart rate, and pupil response in (option D) are incorrect because: Although breath sounds and heart rate can be affected by changes in tissue perfusion, they are not specific or comprehensive indicators of tissue perfusion status. Pupil response alone does not provide a complete assessment of tissue perfusion.
Therefore, the most accurate assessment of tissue perfusion in a patient in shock involves evaluating the level of consciousness, urine output, and lactate levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The characteristics described in the monitor strip analysis suggest ventricular tachycardia. The absence of a visible P wave and the wide and distorted QRS complex indicates that the electrical impulse is originating in the ventricles rather than the atria. The ventricular rate of 196 and regular R-R intervals further support the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia.
B. Atrial fibrillation in (option B) is incorrect because it is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals and the absence of discernible P waves. The QRS complex is typically narrow
C. Atrial tachycardia in (option C) is incorrect because it would have a rapid atrial rate with regular R-R intervals, and P waves may or may not be discernible. The QRS complex is typically narrow.
D. Ventricular fibrillation in (option D) is incorrect because it would present as a chaotic, rapid, and irregular electrical activity with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or regular R-R intervals. It is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate defibrillation.
Therefore, based on the provided information, the nurse would interpret the patient's cardiac rhythm as ventricular tachycardia. However, it is important to note that an accurate interpretation should be made by a qualified healthcare professional, and the patient's clinical context should also be considered.
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