A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

"These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine

"These drugs help you urinate."

"These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."

"These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine":

This response is accurate. Anticholinergic medications work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in various functions in the body, including muscle control. In Parkinson's disease, there is an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine, leading to motor symptoms such as tremors and rigidity. By inhibiting the action of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs help rebalance neurotransmitter activity and alleviate some of the motor symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease.

B. "These drugs help you urinate":

This statement is not directly related to the use of anticholinergic medications in Parkinson's disease. While some anticholinergic drugs can indeed relax the smooth muscle of the bladder and improve urinary symptoms, this is not the primary indication for their use in Parkinson's disease.

C. "These drugs will decrease your eye pressure":

While anticholinergic medications can be used to dilate the pupils and decrease intraocular pressure, this is not typically the reason for their use in Parkinson's disease. While some anticholinergic medications may have ocular effects, they are primarily used to address motor symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease.

D. "These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate":

While some anticholinergic medications may have effects on heart rate by blocking parasympathetic nervous system activity, this is not the primary indication for their use in Parkinson's disease. The focus of anticholinergic therapy in Parkinson's disease is primarily on addressing motor symptoms rather than cardiovascular effects.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. 4 hours:

This option indicates that tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be administered within 4 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms to be considered as a drug therapy option. tPA is a thrombolytic medication used to dissolve blood clots in ischemic stroke, and its effectiveness is highest when administered promptly after the onset of symptoms.

B. 1 hour:

Administering tPA within 1 hour of stroke onset would be extremely challenging and impractical. It typically takes time for patients to recognize stroke symptoms, seek medical attention, and undergo diagnostic evaluations before tPA administration. While time is of the essence in stroke treatment, 1 hour is too short of a timeframe for most patients to receive tPA.

C. 24 hours:

Administering tPA beyond 4.5 hours of stroke onset is generally contraindicated due to the increased risk of complications, including hemorrhagic transformation of the stroke. While there may be some extended time windows considered for certain patients under specific circumstances, such as those meeting eligibility criteria for extended thrombolytic therapy, 24 hours is outside the standard timeframe for tPA administration.

D. 8 hours:

While tPA administration within 8 hours of stroke onset may be feasible for some patients, it is beyond the standard recommended time window for optimal effectiveness. As mentioned earlier, tPA is most effective when administered within the first 3 to 4.5 hours after the onset of symptoms, with earlier administration associated with better outcomes.

A. Decreased pedal pulses B. Hypertension C. Peripheral edema D. Diarrhea

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decreased pedal pulses:

Decreased pedal pulses are not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Instead, they may indicate peripheral vascular disease or reduced perfusion to the lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses is important for assessing circulation but is not directly related to intracranial pressure changes.

B. Hypertension:

Hypertension can be a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. The body may respond to elevated intracranial pressure by increasing blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure. However, hypertension alone is not specific to increased ICP and can have various causes.

C. Peripheral edema:

Peripheral edema is not a typical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. It may occur in conditions such as heart failure or renal dysfunction but is not directly related to intracranial pressure changes following a craniotomy.

D. Diarrhea:

Diarrhea is not a common manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. Increased ICP is more likely to manifest with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.

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A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A few days after a Cerebral Vascular Accident, the patient's family asks the nurse if tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a drug therapy option now. The nurse's response based on the knowledge that this drug must be used within:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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