A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg. pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104" F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.
Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl.
Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.
Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
C. The first intervention should be to administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr to address the immediate concern of hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.
A. While fever control is important, especially in septic shock, administering acetaminophen should not be the first intervention in a patient with severe hypotension and shock. Addressing the low blood pressure and perfusion is a higher priority.
B. Hyperglycemia is common in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. However, in this scenario, the patient's severely low blood pressure and signs of shock take precedence over managing hyperglycemia. Insulin therapy can be initiated later once the patient's hemodynamic status is stabilized.
D. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in septic shock to increase blood pressure and improve perfusion to vital organs. It helps counteract the vasodilation and hypotension characteristic of septic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Respiratory acidosis- The pH is acidic, and the PaCO2 is elevated, indicating respiratory acidosis. The client's hypoventilation (respiratory rate of 7/min) is causing retention of carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis.
A. Metabolic alkalosis- The ABG values do not support a diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis. The pH is acidic, and the base excess is negative, indicating a mild metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory alkalosis- The ABG values do not support a diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis. The pH is acidic, and the PaCO2 is elevated, indicating respiratory acidosis rather than alkalosis.
D. Metabolic acidosis- While there is evidence of a mild metabolic acidosis indicated by the negative base excess, the primary disturbance in this case is respiratory acidosis, as evidenced by the low pH and elevated PaCO2.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A In atrial fibrillation (AF), the electrical activity in the atria is chaotic, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response. As a result, the pulse felt at the radial artery will be irregular, with no discernible pattern. The irregularity is a hallmark feature of AF and is often described as "irregularly irregular."
B Bounding pulses are characterized by a strong and forceful pulsation felt at the arterial pulse sites. In atrial fibrillation, the irregular and rapid ventricular response can lead to an increased stroke volume and forceful contraction of the left ventricle during diastole, resulting in bounding pulses. However, bounding pulses are not typically associated with atrial fibrillation; they are more commonly seen in conditions such as aortic regurgitation or hyperdynamic circulation.
C In some cases of atrial fibrillation, especially if the ventricular rate is very rapid or irregularly irregular, the pulse may not be palpable due to the inconsistent ventricular contractions.
However, in most cases of atrial fibrillation, a pulse is palpable, albeit irregular.
D Atrial fibrillation can result in a rapid ventricular response, leading to a fast heart rate. However, the pulse rate can vary widely among individuals with atrial fibrillation. While some may have a rapid heart rate (tachycardia), others may have a slower heart rate (bradycardia), depending on factors such as concomitant medications, autonomic tone, and the presence of underlying heart disease.
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