A peripheral IV (PIV) is started in the left hand with a 20-gauge catheter.
Lab specimens are drawn.
IV fluids of lactated Ringer's started infusing at 75 mL/hour.
Contractions are now every 4 minutes, lasting 45 seconds.
Mother says they are getting more painful.
She and her husband are instructed on slow breathing and relaxation techniques.
Husband will assist with her breathing.
Client is instructed she can have pain medication if she needs it until time for epidural.
Contractions are now every 3 to 4 minutes apart and client reports they are really hurting, asking for epidural.Healthcare provider (HCP) to bedside. SVE reveals 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced and 0 station.Performed artificial rupture of membranes with clear amniotic fluid.
Client is prepped for immediate cesarean section due to fetal distress.
Client is instructed to start pushing as the baby is crowning.
Epidural is administered, and client experiences immediate pain relief.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The scenario indicates that the client's contractions are increasing in frequency and intensity, and she reports significant pain, prompting a request for an epidural. The cervical exam shows she is 5 cm dilated and 90% effaced, with the baby at 0 station, which is typical for the active phase of labor. This is the appropriate time for an epidural, as pain management is often needed when contractions become more intense and dilation progresses. Clear amniotic fluid after artificial rupture of membranes also suggests no immediate complications.
Choice B rationale
Immediate cesarean section is generally reserved for situations of fetal distress or other obstetric emergencies. There is no mention of fetal heart rate abnormalities or other signs of distress in the scenario. While MS can complicate pregnancy, it does not automatically necessitate a cesarean section without specific indications. The decision for cesarean should be based on maternal or fetal indications not present in this case.
Choice C rationale
The instruction to start pushing is only appropriate during the second stage of labor when the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm). The client is 5 cm dilated, indicating she is still in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Encouraging pushing at this stage would be premature and could cause unnecessary exhaustion and potential harm to the cervix and fetus. Pushing is typically reserved for the final stage when the baby's head is crowning.
Choice D rationale
Administering an epidural and experiencing immediate pain relief aligns with the standard protocol for labor analgesia when requested by the client. Epidural anesthesia is a common and effective method for pain management during labor. This option respects the client's expressed need for pain relief and involves the healthcare provider in safely administering the epidural. Immediate relief from pain can help the client focus on labor progression and reduce stress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Calcium carbonate is a common medication used to manage low calcium levels, but in clients with hyperparathyroidism, it can exacerbate hypercalcemia, leading to dangerous levels of calcium in the blood. Hyperparathyroidism already causes increased calcium release from bones, increased absorption from the intestines, and decreased excretion by the kidneys, so adding calcium carbonate can worsen these effects, potentially leading to complications like kidney stones, bone pain, and cardiovascular issues. Careful monitoring and possible dose adjustments or discontinuation might be necessary.
Choice B rationale
Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic commonly used for pain relief and fever reduction. It is metabolized primarily in the liver and does not significantly impact calcium levels or parathyroid hormone function. Therefore, it does not pose an immediate concern for clients with hyperparathyroidism and can typically be used safely without requiring further discussion with the healthcare provider unless there are other contraindications or hepatic issues in the client's medical history.
Choice C rationale
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic often used to manage hypertension and edema. It reduces urine calcium excretion, which can lead to increased serum calcium levels, exacerbating hypercalcemia in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Thiazide diuretics promote calcium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys, potentially worsening the hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, the use of hydrochlorothiazide should be carefully evaluated and potentially avoided in these clients.
Choice D rationale
Lithium carbonate is used to treat bipolar disorder and can affect parathyroid function, leading to increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels and hypercalcemia. Lithium can alter the set point of the calcium-PTH feedback loop, leading to increased release of PTH, even at normal calcium levels. This can result in worsening hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia, making it a medication that requires careful consideration and monitoring in affected clients.
Choice E rationale
Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic commonly used for pain relief and fever reduction. It is metabolized primarily in the liver and does not significantly impact calcium levels or parathyroid hormone function. Therefore, it does not pose an immediate concern for clients with hyperparathyroidism and can typically be used safely without requiring further discussion with the healthcare provider unless there are other contraindications or hepatic issues in the client's medical history.
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Fetal decelerations require immediate action because they indicate potential fetal distress. Continuous fetal monitoring is essential to assess the fetus's well-being, and any signs of distress must be addressed promptly to ensure a safe delivery.
Choice E rationale: Hypotension is a common side effect of epidural anesthesia and can lead to decreased blood flow to the fetus. Immediate intervention, such as administering IV fluids or medications, is necessary to stabilize the mother's blood pressure and ensure adequate fetal perfusion.
Choice F rationale: Difficulty breathing is a critical sign that may indicate a severe reaction to the epidural anesthesia or other complications. Immediate assessment and intervention are required to ensure the mother's respiratory status is stable and to address any underlying issues.
Choice B rationale: Reports of pain, while important, do not require immediate emergency action compared to the other findings. Pain management should be adjusted accordingly, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the mother or fetus.
Choice C rationale: Nausea, while uncomfortable, is a common side effect of epidural anesthesia and does not require immediate emergency intervention. It can be managed with antiemetic medications.
Choice D rationale: Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia or hypotension, but it is not as critical as the other findings that require immediate emergency attention. It should be monitored and addressed as part of overall care.
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