A physician orders Lithium 1.2 grams/day in three divided doses PO for a client with bipolar disorder. The medication is supplied as 300 mg/5 mL. How much will the nurse administer per dose?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["6.7"]
Step 1: Convert the total daily dose from grams to milligrams. 1.2 grams × 1000 = 1200 milligrams Result: 1200 milligrams
Step 2: Divide the total daily dose by the number of doses per day to find the dose per administration. 1200 milligrams ÷ 3 = 400 milligrams per dose Result: 400 milligrams per dose
Step 3: Determine how many milliliters are needed for each dose. The medication is supplied as 300 mg/5 mL. 400 milligrams ÷ 300 milligrams = (400 ÷ 300) = 1.3333 Result: 1.3333
Step 4: Multiply the result by the volume (5 mL) to find the volume needed per dose. 1.3333 × 5 mL = 6.6665 mL Result: 6.6665 mL
Step 5: Round the result to the nearest tenth. 6.6665 mL rounded to the nearest tenth = 6.7 mL Result: 6.7 mL
The nurse will administer 6.7 mL per dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Prevents Extrapyramidal Side Effects
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are drug-induced movement disorders that include symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side effects are commonly associated with first-generation antipsychotics. While second-generation antipsychotics like olanzapine have a lower risk of causing EPS, their primary use in this context is not to prevent these side effects. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response to the family’s question.
Choice B Reason: Reduces Agitation Until the Lithium Takes Effect
Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that is effective in managing acute agitation and psychotic symptoms in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium, while effective for long-term mood stabilization, takes several days to weeks to reach therapeutic levels and exert its full effect. During this period, olanzapine can help reduce the client’s agitation and stabilize their mood. This makes it the most appropriate response to the family’s question.
Choice C Reason: Cures Manic Symptoms
While olanzapine can help manage manic symptoms, it does not “cure” them. Bipolar disorder is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management with medications and therapy. The term “cure” is misleading as it implies a permanent resolution of symptoms, which is not the case with bipolar disorder. Therefore, this choice is not accurate.
Choice D Reason: Ensures High-Quality Sleep
Olanzapine can have sedative effects and may help improve sleep in some patients. However, its primary use in this scenario is to manage acute agitation and psychotic symptoms rather than to ensure high-quality sleep. While improved sleep may be a beneficial side effect, it is not the main reason for its prescription in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is a. The client’s behavioral change is expected after the time period of medication.
Choice A Reason:
This choice is correct because fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), typically takes about 4 to 6 weeks to start showing its full effects. The client’s statement, “I feel like a great weight is off my chest,” indicates a positive response to the medication, which aligns with the expected timeline for SSRIs to improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. This behavioral change suggests that the medication is working as intended, helping to lift the depressive symptoms.
Choice B Reason:
This choice is incorrect and concerning. While it is true that some individuals may experience a temporary increase in energy before their mood improves, which could potentially increase the risk of suicide, the client’s positive statement does not necessarily indicate suicidal planning. It is important for healthcare providers to continuously monitor for any signs of suicidal ideation, but in this context, the client’s statement more likely reflects an improvement in their depressive symptoms.
Choice C Reason:
This choice is incorrect because there is no indication that the medication dosage should be decreased or that a mood stabilizer should be added. Fluoxetine is generally well-tolerated, and the client’s positive response suggests that the current dosage is effective. Mood stabilizers are typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, not major depressive disorder, unless there is a specific indication for their use.
Choice D Reason:
This choice is incorrect and indicates a misunderstanding of serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonin activity in the brain, often due to drug interactions or overdose. Symptoms include agitation, confusion, rapid heart rate, and high blood pressure4. The client’s statement of feeling relieved does not align with the symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which are generally severe and require immediate medical attention.
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