A post-op client is to receive the following: D5%W/0.45% NS 1 L to infuse over 5 hours. What is the appropriate setting on an infusion pump in milliliters per hour? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["200"]
Volume ordered is 1 L.
Convert the total volume to milliliters (mL)
1 L = 1000 mL.
Total volume in mL = 1 L × 1000 mL/L = 1000 mL
Total infusion time = 5 hours
Calculate the infusion rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr).
Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) / Total infusion time (hours)
= 1000 mL / 5 hours
= 200
The appropriate setting is 200 mL/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer amiodarone 200 mg IV push: Amiodarone is used for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) that are refractory to defibrillation. The rhythm on the monitor is asystole, which is non-shockable, and amiodarone is not indicated here.
B. Defibrillate the client using 200 joules: Defibrillation is only appropriate for shockable rhythms such as VF or pulseless VT. Asystole is not shockable, and defibrillation in this rhythm would be ineffective and inappropriate.
C. CPR until the physician stops the code: The rhythm strip shows asystole, a flatline with no electrical activity. The priority intervention is to initiate and continue high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately and continue until the code is terminated by the physician. This is consistent with Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines.
D. Administer adenosine 12 mg IV push: Adenosine is used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is not indicated in asystole or during cardiac arrest. It would have no effect in a rhythm with no electrical activity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.
C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.
D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.
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