A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Histamine-mediated vascular permeability leading to fluid transudation:
Correct. Ankle edema following an ankle sprain is often due to inflammation and increased vascular permeability. Histamine, released from mast cells and basophils during the inflammatory response, causes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability. This leads to the leakage of fluid from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema.
B) Bradykinin cascade resulting in the accumulation of substance P:
While bradykinin is involved in the inflammatory response and can contribute to pain and vasodilation, it does not directly cause fluid transudation leading to edema in the context of an ankle sprain.
C) Thromboxane A activation of chemical mediators:
Thromboxane A is involved in platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction rather than increasing vascular permeability and edema formation.
D) Neutrophil migration secondary to chemotaxis:
Neutrophil migration is part of the inflammatory response and can contribute to tissue damage and inflammation, but it is not the primary mechanism responsible for the development of edema following an ankle sprain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition characterized by non-cancerous growth of the prostate gland, leading to its enlargement. This enlargement can contribute to urinary retention by obstructing the flow of urine through the urethra. Here's the breakdown of the explanation:
A) Abnormal growth results in loss of bladder muscle tone:
While BPH can lead to urinary symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia, it does not directly cause loss of bladder muscle tone. Instead, the enlarged prostate gland obstructs the bladder outlet, making it difficult for urine to pass through the urethra.
B) Inflammation causes spasms of the gland:
Inflammation of the prostate gland, known as prostatitis, can cause symptoms such as pelvic pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency, but it is not typically associated with BPH. BPH is characterized by benign growth of the prostate tissue rather than inflammation and spasms.
C) The enlarged gland compresses the urethra:
Correct. The primary mechanism by which BPH causes urinary retention is by compressing the urethra, which obstructs the flow of urine from the bladder. As the prostate gland enlarges, it can constrict the urethra, leading to symptoms such as hesitancy, weak urinary stream, incomplete emptying, and urinary retention.
D) Nerve compression decreases the sensation that the bladder is full:
While compression of nerves in the pelvic region can contribute to urinary symptoms, such as decreased sensation of bladder fullness, it is not the primary mechanism by which BPH causes urinary retention. The compression of the urethra by the enlarged prostate gland is the main factor leading to urinary obstruction and retention.
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