A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and surrounding tissues. Here's an explanation of the pathophysiological process producing the symptoms of gout:
A) Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation:
Correct. In gout, elevated levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation and deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, particularly in the big toe joint (first metatarsophalangeal joint) in many cases. These crystals trigger an inflammatory response, activating immune cells and causing swelling, redness, warmth, and severe pain in the affected joint. The inflammation and irritation result from the body's immune response to the presence of these crystals.
B) Chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes and joint inflammation:
This option describes a process more characteristic of osteoarthritis, where degeneration of joint cartilage leads to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) and joint inflammation. Gout involves the deposition of urate crystals rather than direct chondrocyte injury.
C) An immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue results in inflammation:
This process describes the pathophysiology of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, where immune complexes and autoantibodies contribute to inflammation and tissue damage. In gout, the inflammation is primarily triggered by the deposition of urate crystals rather than immune complex deposition.
D) An autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen causes joint destruction:
This option describes the autoimmune process seen in diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, where antibodies target specific antigens, leading to joint destruction. Gout is not an autoimmune disease, and joint destruction in gout is primarily due to inflammation caused by urate crystal deposition rather than autoimmune mechanisms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hypothyroidism is characterized by deficient production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland, leading to a decrease in circulating levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases increased amounts of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in an attempt to stimulate thyroid hormone production.
A) Increased triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) and decreased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH):
This pattern of laboratory findings is not consistent with hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of T3 and T4 due to impaired thyroid function, leading to increased TSH levels as a compensatory response. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
B) Increased triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH):
While TSH levels are typically increased in hypothyroidism, T3 levels are usually decreased. Therefore, the combination of increased T3 and TSH is not indicative of hypothyroidism. This option is incorrect.
C) Decreased triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) and increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH):
Correct. In hypothyroidism, there is a decrease in both T3 and T4 levels due to impaired thyroid function. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases increased amounts of TSH to stimulate the thyroid gland. Therefore, this pattern of laboratory findings is consistent with hypothyroidism.
D) Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyroxine (T4):
Decreased levels of TSH, T3, and T4 are not indicative of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is characterized by elevated TSH levels and decreased T3 and T4 levels. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
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