A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Flank pain and profound hypotension:
Correct. Flank pain, often described as a deep, constant, gnawing, or throbbing sensation in the abdomen or back, can be a sign of impending rupture or dissection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Profound hypotension may occur if the AAA ruptures, leading to massive internal bleeding and shock. Prompt recognition of these signs is crucial for early intervention and surgical repair to prevent catastrophic consequences.
B) Acute shortness of breath and chest pain:
Acute shortness of breath and chest pain are more indicative of cardiovascular or pulmonary conditions such as myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, or acute coronary syndrome rather than an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While aortic dissection can present with chest pain, it is typically described as severe, tearing, or ripping pain that radiates to the back, not as acute shortness of breath.
C) Absent pedal pulses and darkened toes:
Absent pedal pulses and darkened toes may indicate peripheral vascular disease or critical limb ischemia but are not specific signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While AAA can lead to peripheral ischemia in advanced cases, it is not typically associated with acute changes in pedal pulses or toe discoloration.
D) Tea-colored urine and decreased output:
Tea-colored urine and decreased urine output may indicate acute kidney injury or rhabdomyolysis but are not specific signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While a ruptured AAA can lead to renal ischemia and acute kidney injury due to hypoperfusion, these symptoms are not the primary manifestations of AAA
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Pressure injuries, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, result from prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to tissue ischemia and damage. Early recognition of the pathophysiological processes involved in pressure injury development is crucial for prevention and timely intervention. Here's why option D is the correct choice:
A) Epidermal fragility and skin excoriation with serous drainage:
This description more closely aligns with the characteristics of a superficial wound or abrasion rather than the early stages of a pressure injury. In pressure injuries, epidermal breakdown may occur later in the process, after prolonged pressure and tissue ischemia.
B) Hypodermal fluid accumulation and blister formation:
While fluid accumulation and blister formation can occur in some types of wounds, such as friction blisters or burns, they are not typically characteristic of the early stages of pressure injury development. Pressure injuries primarily involve tissue ischemia and damage due to pressure and shear forces.
C) Necrotic tissue, purulent exudate, and eschar formation:
This description is more indicative of advanced or severe pressure injuries rather than the early stages. Necrotic tissue, purulent exudate, and eschar formation typically occur in pressure injuries that have progressed to deeper tissue involvement and infection.
D) Ischemic inflammatory response marked by erythemic skin:
Correct. In the early stages of pressure injury development, the affected area may exhibit signs of tissue ischemia and inflammation, which can manifest as erythema (redness) of the skin. This erythema is a result of the body's inflammatory response to tissue damage caused by pressure and may indicate the need for intervention to relieve pressure and prevent further injury.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
