When planning care for a client who is diagnosed with a large abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the nurse should carefully monitor for which signs and symptoms?

Flank pain and profound hypotension.

Acute shortness of breath and chest pain.

Absent pedal pulses and darkened toes.

Tea-colored urine and decreased output.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Flank pain and profound hypotension:

Correct. Flank pain, often described as a deep, constant, gnawing, or throbbing sensation in the abdomen or back, can be a sign of impending rupture or dissection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Profound hypotension may occur if the AAA ruptures, leading to massive internal bleeding and shock. Prompt recognition of these signs is crucial for early intervention and surgical repair to prevent catastrophic consequences.

B) Acute shortness of breath and chest pain:

Acute shortness of breath and chest pain are more indicative of cardiovascular or pulmonary conditions such as myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, or acute coronary syndrome rather than an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While aortic dissection can present with chest pain, it is typically described as severe, tearing, or ripping pain that radiates to the back, not as acute shortness of breath.

C) Absent pedal pulses and darkened toes:

Absent pedal pulses and darkened toes may indicate peripheral vascular disease or critical limb ischemia but are not specific signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While AAA can lead to peripheral ischemia in advanced cases, it is not typically associated with acute changes in pedal pulses or toe discoloration.

D) Tea-colored urine and decreased output:

Tea-colored urine and decreased urine output may indicate acute kidney injury or rhabdomyolysis but are not specific signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While a ruptured AAA can lead to renal ischemia and acute kidney injury due to hypoperfusion, these symptoms are not the primary manifestations of AAA

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Histamine-mediated vascular permeability leading to fluid transudation:

Correct. Ankle edema following an ankle sprain is often due to inflammation and increased vascular permeability. Histamine, released from mast cells and basophils during the inflammatory response, causes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability. This leads to the leakage of fluid from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema.

B) Bradykinin cascade resulting in the accumulation of substance P:

While bradykinin is involved in the inflammatory response and can contribute to pain and vasodilation, it does not directly cause fluid transudation leading to edema in the context of an ankle sprain.

C) Thromboxane A activation of chemical mediators:

Thromboxane A is involved in platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction rather than increasing vascular permeability and edema formation.

D) Neutrophil migration secondary to chemotaxis:

Neutrophil migration is part of the inflammatory response and can contribute to tissue damage and inflammation, but it is not the primary mechanism responsible for the development of edema following an ankle sprain.

A. Herpes simplex virus. B. Vulvovaginitis. C. Human papillomavirus (HPV). D. Chronic yeast infections.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Herpes simplex virus:

While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.

B. Vulvovaginitis:

Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.

C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):

Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.

D. Chronic yeast infections:

Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.

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When planning care for a client who is diagnosed with a large abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the nurse should carefully monitor for which signs and symptoms?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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