A postoperative client's respiratory rate decreased from 14 breaths/minute to 6 breaths/minute after administration of an opioid analgesic. Thirty minutes later, the client's respiratory rate decreases to 4 breaths/minute, and the nurse caring for the client notifies the healthcare provider and administers a dose of intravenous (IV) naloxone. The charge nurse should counsel the nurse regarding which intervention?
The initial administration of the analgesic.
The decision regarding when to call the healthcare provider.
The documentation of the client's respiratory rate.
The administration of naloxone via IV.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: The initial administration of the analgesic is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The opioid analgesic was prescribed by the healthcare provider and was appropriate for the postoperative pain management of the client.
Choice B Reason: The decision regarding when to call the healthcare provider is an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse should have called the healthcare provider as soon as the client's
respiratory rate decreased to 6 breaths/minute, which is a sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Waiting for another 30 minutes until the respiratory rate decreased to 4 breaths/minute could have put the client at risk of hypoxia, brain damage, or death.
Choice C Reason: The documentation of the client's respiratory rate is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse documented the client's respiratory rate accurately and timely, which is part of the standard of care and legal responsibility of the nurse.
Choice D Reason: The administration of naloxone via IV is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids and restores normal respiration. Administering naloxone via IV is the fastest and most effective way to treat opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client may need another dose of hydromorphone if the pain is not relieved by the previous one. A PN can administer this medication under the supervision of a RN and monitor the client's response.
Choice B Reason: This client's vital signs are within normal limits and indicate that the morphine is effective and not causing respiratory depression. A PN can assess and document the client's vital signs and pain level.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct answer because this client has acute and severe pain that may require immediate intervention and reassessment. An RN can evaluate the cause and severity of the pain, administer additional analgesics as prescribed, and implement nonpharmacological measures to relieve the pain.
Choice D Reason: This client has chronic and stable pain that is managed by a fentanyl patch. A PN can replace the patch according to the schedule and instructions provided by the RN.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This intervention is the most appropriate and effective for the nurse-manager to employ, as it provides clear and objective feedback to the staff nurse based on professional criteria, and encourages a positive and constructive approach to enhance the nurse's performance and development.
Choice B Reason: This intervention is not advisable, as it may create a false impression of the staff nurse's performance and fail to address the underlying issues or problems. Documenting the nurse's negative behaviors is important for accountability and improvement purposes, and avoiding it may expose the nurse manager to legal or ethical risks.
Choice C Reason: This intervention is not optimal, as it may demoralize or discourage the staff nurse and create a negative or hostile work environment. Focusing only on the areas of weakness may overlook the strengths and potential of the staff nurse, and may not foster a supportive and collaborative relationship between the nurse- manager and the staff nurse.
Choice D Reason: This intervention is not relevant, as it may divert the attention from the staff nurse's performance and shift the blame to external factors. Discussing how the inconsistency in the staff nurse's performance disrupts the routine of all of the staff members on the unit may not help the staff nurse identify and address their own areas of improvement, and may cause resentment or conflict among the team.
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