A pregnant client is undergoing a quad screen test and inquires about the possible results.
Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

Choice A rationale:

Urine output (UO) does not completely stop during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. While it is significantly reduced, some urine production still occurs. Complete cessation of urine output is known as anuria, which is a more severe condition and a medical emergency.

Anuria may occur in the most severe cases of acute renal failure, but it is not the defining characteristic of the oliguric phase.

It's crucial to distinguish between oliguria and anuria, as their management approaches differ significantly.

Choice B rationale:

During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours. This is the defining characteristic of this phase.

The decrease in urine output is due to damage to the kidneys' filtering units, known as nephrons. As a result, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products and excess fluids effectively from the blood, leading to their accumulation in the body.

This reduced urine output can lead to various complications, including fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and a buildup of waste products in the blood (uremia).

Choice C rationale:

Urine output (UO) is always measured during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. It is a vital clinical indicator to monitor the severity of kidney dysfunction and guide treatment decisions.

Accurate measurement of urine output is essential for assessing fluid balance, kidney function, and the effectiveness of treatment interventions.

Choice D rationale:

Urine output (UO) is not greater than 500 mL/24 hours during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. A urine output greater than 500 mL/24 hours would indicate a non-oliguric phase of acute renal failure or a potential recovery phase.

Choice A rationale:

Epicanthal folds: These are skin folds that cover the inner corners of the eyes. They are a common characteristic of Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome.

Heart murmur: A heart murmur is an abnormal sound heard during a heartbeat. It can be caused by a variety of conditions, including Trisomy 21. Approximately half of babies with Down syndrome have a heart defect.

Low-set ears: This means that the ears are positioned lower on the head than usual. This is another common characteristic of Trisomy 21.

Poor muscle tone: This means that the muscles are weak and floppy. This is also a common characteristic of Trisomy 21.

Choice B rationale:

Cystic fibrosis: This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. It is not typically associated with the physical features observed in this newborn. Newborns with cystic fibrosis typically present with meconium ileus, failure to thrive, and recurrent respiratory infections.

Choice C rationale:

Tay-Sachs disease: This is a rare genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is not typically associated with the physical features observed in this newborn. Infants with Tay-Sachs disease typically appear normal at birth, with symptoms developing around 6 months of age. These symptoms can include developmental delays, muscle weakness, seizures, and blindness.

Choice D rationale:

Marfan syndrome: This is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue. It is not typically associated with the physical features observed in this newborn. Individuals with Marfan syndrome typically have tall stature, long limbs, and hypermobile joints. They may also have eye problems, such as lens dislocation, and heart problems, such as aortic aneurysm.