A pregnant female patient presented with complaints of incontinence, polydipsia, and polyphagia. The patient had a 2-week-old, non-healing wound that became infected. An A1C test showed 8.5% of blood glucose attached to hemoglobin. The wound was cleaned and dressing was applied.
Which condition is indicated by the description?

Gestational thrombocytopenia

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Gestational hypertension

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Gestational thrombocytopenia:

Gestational thrombocytopenia involves low platelet counts during pregnancy. Symptoms: Easy bruising or bleeding- not polydipsia, polyphagia, or poor wound healing. No relationship to elevated blood glucose.

B. Gestational diabetes mellitus: Gestational diabetes is high blood sugar that develops during pregnancy. Classic signs: polydipsia, polyphagia and polyuria. Non-healing wounds and infection risk due to impaired immunity and circulation. A1C of 8.5% clearly indicates poor glycemic control.

C. Gestational hypertension: High blood pressure during pregnancy. Symptoms: Headache, visual changes, swelling, not polydipsia, polyphagia, or infection.

D. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss, but not high glucose or wound issues.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Isotonic: An isotonic solution has the same solute concentration as blood plasma; thus, 0.9% NaCl does not cause cells to shrink or swell.

B. Exotonic: "Exotonic" is not a recognized term in fluid balance or physiology.

C. Hypotonic: A hypotonic solution (like 0.45% NaCl) has a lower solute concentration than blood, causing water to move into cells, possibly leading to swelling.

D. Hypertonic: A hypertonic solution (like 3% NaCl) has a higher solute concentration than blood, causing water to leave cells and leading to cell shrinkage.

A. Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosome and environmental factors. B. Turner's syndrome is a disorder in which a female has a completely or partially missing X chromosome. C. Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior, and other factors. D. Y chromosome as hemophilia is associated with the X chromosome.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosome and environmental factors:

Hypertension is a multifactorial disease, influenced by genetics and environment, but it is not linked specifically to the Y chromosome.

B. Turner's syndrome is a disorder in which a female has a completely or partially missing X chromosome:

Turner's syndrome (45, X) is a chromosomal disorder where females are missing all or part of one X chromosome, leading to various physical and developmental features.

C. Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior, and other factors:

While this is true, Type 2 diabetes is a multifactorial disease, not a chromosomal alteration.

D. Y chromosome as hemophilia is associated with the X chromosome:

Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder, not Y-linked. It is passed through the X chromosome, typically affecting males.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which term describes a solution such as 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) relative to red blood cells?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which accurately describes a chromosomal alteration?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 27-year-old reports hoarseness with dry cough. Examination reveals inflamed vocal cords.

What are B cells?

What are common signs associated with Down Syndrome?

A 32-year-old patient has rectal bleeding, pruritus, and vague discomfort around the anal area after giving birth. The provider describes the disorder to the patient as dilated, tortuous veins in the mucous membrane of the rectum. Which disease is being described?

Which are categories of Asthma?

A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this describe?

A patient has a chronic digestive disease characterized by intermittent abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, diarrhea, and loss of appetite. This condition is sometimes referred to as regional enteritis. Which condition does this patient have?

A female patient presents with chronic dyspareunia, pelvic pain, increased abdominal girth, fever, and vomiting. After an HE4 test and positive abdominal ultrasound, the physician schedules a salpingo-oophorectomy. Which condition is described?