A pregnant female patient presented with complaints of incontinence, polydipsia, and polyphagia. The patient had a 2-week-old, non-healing wound that became infected. An A1C test showed 8.5% of blood glucose attached to hemoglobin. The wound was cleaned and dressing was applied.
Which condition is indicated by the description?

Gestational thrombocytopenia

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Gestational hypertension

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Gestational thrombocytopenia:

Gestational thrombocytopenia involves low platelet counts during pregnancy. Symptoms: Easy bruising or bleeding- not polydipsia, polyphagia, or poor wound healing. No relationship to elevated blood glucose.

B. Gestational diabetes mellitus: Gestational diabetes is high blood sugar that develops during pregnancy. Classic signs: polydipsia, polyphagia and polyuria. Non-healing wounds and infection risk due to impaired immunity and circulation. A1C of 8.5% clearly indicates poor glycemic control.

C. Gestational hypertension: High blood pressure during pregnancy. Symptoms: Headache, visual changes, swelling, not polydipsia, polyphagia, or infection.

D. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss, but not high glucose or wound issues.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A ruptured or expanding abdominal aortic aneurysm causes sudden back and abdominal pain and is more common in people with hypertension.

B. Embolus:

An embolus would cause acute blockage, usually leading to ischemia downstream, but not arterial dilation.

C. Phlebitis:

Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not an artery, and does not cause sudden severe back pain.

D. Thrombus:

A thrombus is a clot, and while it can block vessels, it does not cause local dilation of arteries.

A. GERD B. Crohn disease C. Peptic ulcers D. Pancreatitis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease):

GERD causes heartburn and regurgitation, not RLQ pain or diarrhea.

B. Crohn disease:

Crohn's disease (regional enteritis) causes chronic inflammation that can affect any part of the GI tract, often terminal ileum (RLQ pain), with diarrhea and weight loss.

C. Peptic ulcers:

Peptic ulcers cause epigastric pain, typically related to meals, not chronic RLQ pain or diarrhea.

D. Pancreatitis:

Pancreatitis causes epigastric pain radiating to the back, not right lower quadrant pain or chronic diarrhea.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 50-year-old patient with essential hypertension was involved in a car accident and presented with sudden, severe back and abdominal pain due to local dilation of the abdominal artery. Which condition does this describe?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient has a chronic digestive disease characterized by intermittent abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant, diarrhea, and loss of appetite. This condition is sometimes referred to as regional enteritis. Which condition does this patient have?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which accurately describes a chromosomal alteration?

Which treatment is used for renal cell cancer?

A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?

Which condition occurs when a blood clot causes a section of heart muscle to become ischemic?

Which condition is caused by fatty, fibrous plaques that obstruct the lumen of coronary arteries?

What are common signs associated with Down Syndrome?

A 32-year-old patient has rectal bleeding, pruritus, and vague discomfort around the anal area after giving birth. The provider describes the disorder to the patient as dilated, tortuous veins in the mucous membrane of the rectum. Which disease is being described?