A pregnant female patient presented with complaints of incontinence, polydipsia, and polyphagia. The patient had a 2-week-old, non-healing wound that became infected. An A1C test showed 8.5% of blood glucose attached to hemoglobin. The wound was cleaned and dressing was applied.
Which condition is indicated by the description?
Gestational thrombocytopenia
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Gestational hypertension
Hyperemesis gravidarum
The Correct Answer is B
A. Gestational thrombocytopenia:
Gestational thrombocytopenia involves low platelet counts during pregnancy. Symptoms: Easy bruising or bleeding- not polydipsia, polyphagia, or poor wound healing. No relationship to elevated blood glucose.
B. Gestational diabetes mellitus: Gestational diabetes is high blood sugar that develops during pregnancy. Classic signs: polydipsia, polyphagia and polyuria. Non-healing wounds and infection risk due to impaired immunity and circulation. A1C of 8.5% clearly indicates poor glycemic control.
C. Gestational hypertension: High blood pressure during pregnancy. Symptoms: Headache, visual changes, swelling, not polydipsia, polyphagia, or infection.
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss, but not high glucose or wound issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The kidney senses decreased perfusion:
This occurs earlier in the RAAS sequence, triggering the release of renin — not the immediate next step after angiotensin I is produced.
B. Renin is released and cleaves angiotensinogen:
This precedes the production of angiotensin I, not after.
C. Blood volume is raised and blood pressure is increased:
This is the final result of RAAS activation, not the step immediately following angiotensin I production.
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme helps to produce angiotensin II in the lungs and to stimulate the adrenal gland to release aldosterone:
After angiotensin I is produced, it travels to the lungs where ACE converts it into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that also triggers aldosterone release.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Condyloma acuminata:
These are genital warts, a hallmark of HPV infection.
B. Diarrhea:
Not typical of HPV; more common with gastrointestinal infections.
C. Urethritis:
Urethritis is more commonly caused by gonorrhea or chlamydia.
D. Penile edema:
Swelling may occur secondarily but is not a classic primary symptom.
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