During augmentation of labor with intravenous oxytocin (Pitocin), a multiparous client becomes pale and diaphoretic and complains of severe lower abdominal pain with a tearing sensation. An abnormal FHR tracing is noted on the monitor. The nurse should suspect:

Uterine prolapse.

Uterine rupture.

Precipitous labor.

Amniotic fluid embolus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus descends into or outside the vagina, usually postpartum due to weakened pelvic support. It does not present with sudden, severe pain or fetal heart rate abnormalities during labor.

B. Uterine rupture. A tearing sensation, sudden severe pain, fetal heart rate abnormalities, pallor, and diaphoresis are hallmark signs of uterine rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency where the uterine wall tears, often due to prior cesarean scars, excessive oxytocin use, or grand multiparity. Immediate intervention, including emergency surgery, is required to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Precipitous labor. Precipitous labor is rapid labor and delivery within three hours and is not associated with severe, tearing pain. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not typically involve uterine rupture symptoms.

D. Amniotic fluid embolus. An amniotic fluid embolus presents with sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse due to amniotic fluid entering the maternal circulation. It does not typically cause localized severe abdominal pain or fetal distress due to uterine rupture.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Professor Proctor emphasizes safety as the highest priority while traveling, including when coming to class. Ensuring that students arrive safely is considered more important than strict punctuality.

A. Maintaining euglycemia in labor reduces the need for insulin postpartum. B. A blood glucose level 110 puts the client at risk for infection in labor. C. More insulin will be available for fetal use via placental transfer. D. An elevated blood glucose in labor increases the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Maintaining euglycemia in labor reduces the need for insulin postpartum. While insulin requirements typically decrease after delivery due to the loss of placental hormones that cause insulin resistance, the primary reason for tight glucose control during labor is to prevent neonatal complications rather than reducing postpartum insulin needs.

B. A blood glucose level above 110 puts the client at risk for infection in labor. Poorly controlled diabetes can increase infection risk over time, but transient hyperglycemia in labor is not a direct cause of infection. The focus of glucose management during labor is to prevent neonatal hypoglycemia rather than maternal infection.

C. More insulin will be available for fetal use via placental transfer. Insulin does not cross the placenta, so maternal insulin therapy does not provide insulin to the fetus. However, maternal hyperglycemia leads to increased fetal insulin production, which can cause neonatal hypoglycemia after birth.

D. An elevated blood glucose in labor increases the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia. Maternal hyperglycemia causes the fetus to produce excessive insulin in utero. After birth, when the maternal glucose supply is suddenly cut off, the infant’s high insulin levels can cause a rapid drop in blood glucose, leading to neonatal hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous if not managed properly.

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During augmentation of labor with intravenous oxytocin (Pitocin), a multiparous client becomes pale and diaphoretic and complains of severe lower abdominal pain with a tearing sensation. An abnormal FHR tracing is noted on the monitor. The nurse should suspect:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Professor Proctor: Always wants us to be safe while traveling anywhere- especially when coming to class. This is prioritized even over being on time.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A laboring woman with Type 1 diabetes is on an IV insulin drip, and the nurse is monitoring her glucose levels hourly. The woman's partner asks why the glucose needs to remain between 70-110 mg/dL. The nurse's response is based on which of the following information?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is monitoring the labor of a patient who is receiving IV oxytocin (Pitocin) at 6 ml/hr. Which of the following clinical signs would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?

A client has been admitted to the labor and delivery suite for induction of labor for post-term pregnancy. Misoprostol (Cytotec) has been inserted. Which of the following findings would warrant stopping the Cytotec treatment?

The nurse is assessing a patient who has severe preeclampsia. The assessment finding that should be reported to the physician is:

The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the patient. This drug is most often used for which obstetric complication?

If the nurse suspects a patient has experienced anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolus), which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

For a woman at 42 weeks gestation, which finding would require more assessment by the nurse?

A woman is in the second stage of labor and has a spinal block in place for pain management. The nurse obtains the woman's blood pressure and notes that it is 20% lower than the baseline level. Which action should the nurse take?