A registered nurse in an outpatient surgical center is providing a client with essential information about discharge planning for home.
What details should the registered nurse include about transportation?
The client is prohibited from driving a car home.
No specific information is necessary.
If the client does not experience dizziness, they are permitted to drive a car.
Only individuals over the age of 25 may drive home.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Impaired cognitive and motor function:
Anesthesia and analgesic medications used during surgery can significantly impair cognitive and motor skills, even if the patient feels alert and capable. These effects can last for several hours or even days after the procedure, making it unsafe for the patient to drive.
Studies have shown that reaction time, judgment, coordination, and visual acuity can be significantly impaired following surgery, even in patients who report feeling normal.
Driving under the influence of these medications poses a serious risk of accidents and injuries, both to the patient and other road users.
Risk of postoperative complications:
Postoperative complications, such as bleeding, nausea, vomiting, pain, or dizziness, can occur unexpectedly and may require immediate attention.
Driving while experiencing these complications can be extremely dangerous and could delay necessary medical intervention.
It's crucial for the patient to have a responsible adult present to monitor their condition and seek medical assistance if needed. Legal and liability considerations:
Many healthcare facilities have strict policies prohibiting patients from driving after surgery due to liability concerns.
If a patient were to be involved in an accident while driving after surgery, the facility could be held liable for not ensuring the patient's safety and preventing them from driving.
Choice B rationale:
Inadequate guidance: Simply stating that no specific information is necessary fails to address the potential risks associated with driving after surgery.
Patient safety: It's the nurse's responsibility to provide clear and comprehensive discharge instructions that prioritize patient safety.
Omission of crucial information: Omitting information about transportation could lead to misunderstandings and potentially unsafe actions by the patient.
Choice C rationale:
Unreliable self-assessment: Relying on the patient's self-assessment of dizziness is not a reliable method to determine their fitness to drive.
Residual effects of medication: Patients may not fully perceive the subtle effects of anesthesia and medications on their cognitive and motor skills.
Potential for delayed impairment: Symptoms such as dizziness or drowsiness could manifest later, even if the patient initially feels well.
Choice D rationale:
Age not a sole determinant: While age can be a factor in driving ability, it's not the sole determinant of fitness to drive after surgery.
Individual differences: Patients of any age can experience cognitive and motor impairment following surgery.
Oversimplification of risks: This choice inaccurately suggests that only individuals under 25 are at risk, potentially leading to unsafe decisions by older patients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Focuses on avoiding change rather than managing it effectively. Change is often necessary for improvement and growth. Seeking ways to avert it can hinder progress and prevent potential benefits.
Undermines the nurse's role as a change agent. Nurses are expected to play a proactive role in initiating and implementing change to enhance patient care and organizational effectiveness.
May lead to missed opportunities to address issues or challenges. By focusing on averting change, underlying problems may remain unaddressed, potentially compromising patient care or organizational efficiency.
Choice B rationale:
Addresses group cohesion, which is crucial for successful change implementation. Cohesive groups demonstrate better communication, collaboration, and support, facilitating acceptance and adaptation to change.
Recognizes that change can disrupt group dynamics and relationships. Assessing group cohesion allows for identification of potential challenges and development of strategies to strengthen relationships and foster teamwork during the change process.
Highlights the importance of considering the social and relational aspects of change. Change is not only a technical process; it involves individuals with emotions, beliefs, and social connections that need to be considered for successful implementation.
Choice C rationale:
Assesses the group's overall openness and willingness to accept change. Some groups may be more resistant to change due to past experiences, fear of the unknown, or attachment to existing practices.
Determines if the change aligns with the group's values and beliefs. Change that conflicts with deeply held values is likely to encounter stronger resistance and may require additional strategies to address concerns and build consensus.
Recognizes that not all groups are equally adaptable to change. Understanding the group's amenability to change helps in tailoring implementation strategies and managing potential resistance.
Choice D rationale:
Evaluates the group's preparedness for change in terms of knowledge, skills, and resources. Insufficient preparation can lead to confusion, frustration, and decreased effectiveness during the change process.
Considers the group's emotional readiness to accept and adapt to change. Even if a change is technically feasible, emotional resistance can hinder its success. Assessing readiness allows for addressing concerns and providing support to facilitate the transition.
Ensures that the group has the necessary support and resources to implement the change successfully. Change often requires training, guidance, and time for adjustment. Providing adequate support systems is essential for successful implementation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Straight catheters are single-use catheters that are inserted into the bladder to drain urine and then immediately removed. They are not suitable for long-term use in clients with obstructed urethras because they would need to be inserted repeatedly, causing discomfort and potential trauma to the urethral tissues. Additionally, the obstruction itself would make it difficult or impossible to insert a straight catheter.
Choice B rationale:
Indwelling urethral catheters, also known as Foley catheters, are inserted into the bladder and remain in place for a period of time. They are typically used for clients who cannot void on their own or who require continuous bladder drainage. However, they are not the best option for clients with obstructed urethras for the following reasons:
The presence of the catheter within the urethra can further irritate or damage the already obstructed tissues. The balloon that holds the catheter in place could potentially worsen the obstruction.
The risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is increased with indwelling catheters.
Choice C rationale:
Intermittent urethral catheters are inserted into the bladder to drain urine and then removed. They are typically used by clients who can self-catheterize several times a day. However, they are not suitable for clients with complete prostatic obstruction, as the obstruction would make it difficult or impossible to insert the catheter.
Choice D rationale:
Suprapubic catheters are inserted directly into the bladder through a small incision in the abdomen, bypassing the urethra entirely. This makes them the most suitable option for clients with obstructed urethras, as it eliminates the need to pass a catheter through the obstructed area. Suprapubic catheters offer several advantages in this situation:
They avoid further irritation or damage to the urethral tissues.
They provide a more comfortable and convenient option for long-term bladder drainage.
They may reduce the risk of UTIs compared to indwelling urethral catheters.
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