A postoperative home care patient has developed thrombophlebitis in her right leg.
What type of medication is likely to be prescribed for this cardiovascular complication?
Anticoagulant medication
Antihistamine medication
Antibiotic medication
Antigen
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation within a vein. It commonly occurs in the legs, particularly after surgery or periods of prolonged immobility.
Anticoagulant medications work by preventing the formation of blood clots or by slowing their growth. They do not dissolve existing clots, but they can help prevent the clot from enlarging or breaking off and traveling to other parts of the body, such as the lungs (causing a pulmonary embolism).
Common anticoagulant medications used to treat thrombophlebitis include:
Heparin: This is a fast-acting injectable medication often used in the initial treatment of thrombophlebitis. Warfarin: This is an oral medication that takes a few days to start working but can be used for long-term treatment.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs): These are newer oral medications that have a more predictable effect and fewer interactions with food and other medications compared to warfarin.
The choice of anticoagulant medication depends on several factors, including the severity of the thrombophlebitis, the patient's overall health, and any other medications they are taking.
Choice B rationale:
Antihistamine medications are used to treat allergic reactions. They do not have any effect on blood clots and would not be effective in treating thrombophlebitis.
Choice C rationale:
Antibiotic medications are used to treat infections caused by bacteria. They do not have any effect on blood clots and would not be effective in treating thrombophlebitis unless there is a concurrent bacterial infection.
Choice D rationale:
Antigens are substances that trigger an immune response in the body. They are not used to treat thrombophlebitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering pre-operative medications does not address the client's expressed desire regarding resuscitation. It is a necessary step in preparing the client for surgery, but it does not directly relate to their preferences for end-of-life care.
Fulfilling this task does not ensure that the client's wishes are communicated to the appropriate healthcare providers, potentially leading to unwanted resuscitative efforts if the client's condition deteriorates during surgery.
It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize the client's autonomy and right to self-determination regarding their healthcare choices.
Choice B rationale:
Informing the physician after the surgery is complete is not timely and could result in the client's wishes not being respected.
The physician needs to be aware of the client's resuscitation preferences before the procedure begins to ensure that care aligns with their wishes.
Delaying communication could lead to ethical and legal dilemmas if resuscitation is attempted against the client's expressed desires.
Choice C rationale:
This is the most appropriate action because it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures that their wishes are documented and communicated effectively.
Having a clear conversation with the client allows for exploration of their understanding of resuscitation and any potential concerns or questions they may have.
Recording the client's wishes in their medical record provides a clear record for all healthcare providers involved in their care, promoting consistency and respect for their autonomy.
Choice D rationale:
While verbally communicating the client's wishes to the operating room supervisor is important, it is not sufficient on its own.
Written documentation in the medical record is essential to ensure that the information is accurately conveyed to all members of the healthcare team and accessible throughout the client's care journey.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Immobility: A bed-bound client is at the highest risk for pressure ulcer development due to prolonged pressure on bony prominences. The lack of movement prevents adequate blood flow to the tissues, leading to ischemia and tissue breakdown.
Age: Older adults have thinner, more fragile skin that is more susceptible to injury. They also have decreased subcutaneous fat, which provides less cushioning for bony prominences.
Nutritional status: Malnutrition is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers, as it impairs wound healing and tissue repair. Incontinence: Urinary and fecal incontinence can irritate the skin and increase the risk of breakdown.
Chronic medical conditions: Many chronic medical conditions, such as diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, and neurological disorders, can impair blood flow and sensation, further increasing the risk of pressure ulcers.
Choice B rationale:
Mobility: A client who uses a cane is still able to ambulate, which helps to redistribute pressure and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers.
Age: While a 75-year-old client is still considered an older adult, they are less likely to be at risk than a bed-bound client.
Choice C rationale:
Mobility: A client who uses a walker is able to ambulate, although their mobility may be limited. This still helps to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers compared to a bed-bound client.
Age: A 92-year-old client is at a higher risk due to their age, but their mobility helps to mitigate this risk. Choice D rationale:
Mobility: A mobile client is at the lowest risk for pressure ulcer development, as they are able to frequently reposition themselves and relieve pressure on bony prominences.
Age: While an 83-year-old client is still considered an older adult, their mobility significantly reduces their risk.
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