A school-age client with asthma has been monitoring their daily peak expiratory flow rates(PEFR). The client's mother calls the clinic to report that the PEFR was at 45% of their personal best. Which guidance should the nurse provide to the mother?
"Your child needs to go to the hospital as soon as possible."
"Have your child use their inhaled corticosteroid and follow it with albuterol."
"Your child needs to administer salmeterol right away."
"Continue to watch the PEFR readings and call back if they go below 40%."
The Correct Answer is B
A. A PEFR of 45% of the personal best indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation, but immediate hospitalization is not necessarily required unless there are severe symptoms or other indicators of serious distress.
B. At 45% of the personal best PEFR, the child is experiencing a moderate asthma exacerbation. The recommended action is to use a quick-relief inhaler like albuterol, which is effective in providing immediate relief. Inhaled corticosteroids are part of the long-term management but should not replace the use of a quick-relief inhaler during an exacerbation.
C. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used for maintenance therapy and is not typically used for acute exacerbations. Albuterol is preferred in this situation for immediate relief.
D. While monitoring PEFR is important, action should be taken when PEFR falls below 50% of the personal best, and more immediate intervention is needed at 45% of the personal best.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder that affects the clotting process, and the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is typically prolonged in individuals with hemophilia, indicating a deficiency in clotting factors.
B. Hemoglobin levels may remain normal unless the client experiences significant bleeding episodes.
C. Platelet count is usually normal in hemophilia, as the disorder affects clotting factors rather than platelet production.
D. Hematocrit levels may also remain normal unless there is significant bleeding, which would lower hematocrit due to blood loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A complete blood count is not specifically required before administering the rubella vaccine.
B. Lead screening is not related to rubella vaccination and is not required for this purpose.
C. The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, and it is important to ensure that the patient is not pregnant because the vaccine could potentially harm the fetus. Therefore, a pregnancy test is a necessary precaution.
D. Tuberculosis screening is not related to the rubella vaccination and is not required for this purpose.
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