A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:

Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.

Assess for congenital anomalies.

Determine fetal presentation.

Monitor fetal growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix. It usually does not resolve and may cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice B Reason: Complete placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix. It is a serious condition that requires cesarean delivery and may cause life-threatening hemorrhage.

Choice C Reason: Marginal placenta previa is a condition where the edge of the placenta reaches the margin of the cervix. It may also cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice D Reason: Low-lying placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is near the cervix, but not covering it. It may resolve spontaneously as the uterus grows and the placenta moves upward.

A. Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. B. Postpartum hemorrhage. C. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA). D. Acute vasospasm.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. This is because episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common complications of diabetes during pregnancy, which can aﬀect both the mother and the fetus. Hypoglycemia is a condition where the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, which can cause symptoms such as sweating, trembling, hunger, confusion, or loss of consciousness. Hyperglycemia is a condition where the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, which can cause symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, fatigue, blurred vision, or ketoacidosis. Diabetes during pregnancy requires careful monitoring and management of blood glucose levels to prevent adverse outcomes such as fetal macrosomia, congenital anomalies, stillbirth, or neonatal hypoglycemia.

Choice B Reason: Postpartum hemorrhage. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent complication that may occur after delivery, not during pregnancy. Postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract after delivery, which can cause hypovolemic shock, anemia, or death. Postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Choice C Reason: Cerebrovascular accident (CVA). This is an incorrect answer that indicates a rare and severe complication that may occur during or after pregnancy, not specifically related to diabetes. CVA is also known as stroke, which is an interruption of blood ﬂow to the brain due to ischemia or hemorrhage, which can cause neurological deficits or death. CVA can be caused by hypertension, preeclampsia-eclampsia, thrombophilia, or vascular malformations.

Choice D Reason: Acute vasospasm. This is an incorrect answer that suggests a diﬀerent condition that may occur during pregnancy, not associated with diabetes. Acute vasospasm is also known as Raynaud's phenomenon, which is a disorder of blood vessels that causes them to narrow and reduce blood ﬂow to the extremities in response to cold or stress, which can cause pain, numbness, or color changes. Acute vasospasm can be triggered by smoking, medications, or autoimmune diseases.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

If a woman has a pre-existing condition of diabetes, the nurse knows that she would be at risk for what symptom(s) during her pregnancy? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

When the nurse is assessing a postpartum client approximately 6 hours after delivery, which finding would warrant further investigation? Select one:

The parents of a newborn who is being treated for bacterial septicemia ask the nurse why their baby didn't seem very ill. The best response of the nurse is: Select one:

The nurse is reading the results of non-stress test (NST) strips completed that day. Which of the following strips meets the criteria for a reactive NST? Select one:

The nurse is performing a newborn physical assessment and is about to elicit the Moro reﬂex. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? Select one:

A woman has just entered the third stage of labor. The nurse would focus care on which of the following? Select one:

In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except: Select one:

Which of the following would be essential to implement to prevent late postpartum hemorrhage? Select one: