A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:

Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.

Assess for congenital anomalies.

Determine fetal presentation.

Monitor fetal growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Assisting with the delivery of the placenta and ensuring that the fundus is contracted afterward. This is an appropriate action for the nurse to perform during the third stage of labor, as it helps complete the process of labor and prevent complications.

Choice B Reason: Palpating the woman's fundus for position and firmness. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is important to monitor the fundal height, location, and consistency to assess uterine involution and bleeding.

Choice C Reason: Encouraging the woman to push with her contractions. This is an action that is done during the second stage of labor, not the third. The second stage of labor is the period from full cervical dilation to the birth of the baby. The nurse's role is to support and coach the woman to push eﬀectively with her contractions.

Choice D Reason: Alleviating perineal discomfort with the application of ice packs. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is a comfort measure that can reduce swelling, pain, and inﬂammation in the perineal area.

A. Contact the physician, as it indicates early DIC. B. Contact the physician, as it is a first sign of postpartum eclampsia. C. Document the finding as it is a normal finding at this time. D. Obtain an order for a CBC, as it suggests postpartum anemia.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Contact the physician, as it indicates early DIC. This is an incorrect answer that confuses a low pulse rate with a high pulse rate. DIC stands for disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a life-threatening condition where abnormal clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously in the body. DIC can occur as a complication of postpartum hemorrhage, infection, or placental abruption. DIC can cause tachycardia (high pulse rate), not bradycardia (low pulse rate).

Choice B Reason: Contact the physician, as it is a first sign of postpartum eclampsia. This is an incorrect answer that misinterprets a low pulse rate as a sign of hypertension. Postpartum eclampsia is a condition where seizures occur in a woman who has preeclampsia or eclampsia after delivery. Preeclampsia and eclampsia are characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy. Postpartum eclampsia can cause hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure).

Choice C Reason: Document the finding as it is a normal finding at this time. This is because a pulse rate of 60 beats per minute is within the normal range for an adult and may reﬂect a physiological adaptation to the postpartum period. During pregnancy, the maternal blood volume and cardiac output increase, which can elevate the pulse rate. After delivery, these parameters gradually return to pre-pregnancy levels, which can lower the pulse rate.

Choice D Reason: Obtain an order for a CBC, as it suggests postpartum anemia. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that a low pulse rate is caused by anemia. Anemia is a condition where the red blood cell count or hemoglobin level is lower than normal, which can impair oxygen delivery to the tissues. Anemia can occur in the postpartum period due to blood loss during delivery or poor nutritional intake during pregnancy. Anemia can cause tachycardia (high pulse rate), not bradycardia (low pulse rate).

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman has just entered the third stage of labor. The nurse would focus care on which of the following? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A woman who is 12 hours postpartum had a pulse rate around 80 beats per minute during pregnancy. Now, the nurse finds a pulse of 60 beats per minute. Which of these actions should the nurse take? Select one:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The primary factor that diﬀerentiates eclampsia from preeclampsia is: Select one:

The nurse's initial action when caring for an otherwise stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to: Select one:

An infant of a Diabetic Mother (IDM) has a blood glucose of 60 upon admission to the well-baby nursery. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action? Select one:

Post-term fetal risks include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one:

A client with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and an HbA1c of 6.0% is planning to become pregnant soon. What anticipatory teaching should the nurse provide this client? Select one:

A client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select one: