A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:
Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.
Assess for congenital anomalies.
Determine fetal presentation.
Monitor fetal growth.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Late decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Late decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the end of contractions. Amnioinfusion is not effective for late decelerations, as it does not address the underlying cause of uteroplacental insufficiency, which may be due to maternal hypertension, diabetes, preeclampsia, or placental abruption.
Choice B Reason: Moderate decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a non-existent type of fetal heart rate patern, as there is no such term as moderate decelerations. The term moderate refers to the category of fetal heart rate variability, which is a measure of the fluctuations in fetal heart rate around the baseline. Moderate variability indicates normal fetal oxygenation and well-being, while absent or minimal variability indicates fetal hypoxia or distress.
Choice C Reason: Variable decelerations. This is because variable decelerations are a type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates cord compression, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in onset, depth, and duration, and do not have a consistent relationship with uterine contractions. Amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing saline or lactated Ringer's solution into the amniotic cavity through a transcervical catheter, which can relieve cord compression by increasing the volume of amniotic fluid and cushioning the cord. Amnioinfusion can improve fetal oxygenation and reduce variable decelerations.
Choice D Reason: Early decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates head compression, which can stimulate the vagus nerve and slow down the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin with the onset of uterine contractions and return to baseline with the end of contractions. Early decelerations are benign and do not require intervention, as they reflect normal fetal head descent and progress of labor. Amnioinfusion is not indicated for early decelerations, as it does not affect head compression or vagal stimulation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Homans' sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign that is not related to pregnancy. Homans' sign is a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that occurs when there is pain or discomfort in the calf or popliteal region when the foot is dorsiflexed. Homans' sign can be elicited by passive or active movement of the foot, but it is not a reliable or specific indicator of DVT.
Choice B Reason: Chadwick's sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign of pregnancy that affects the color of the cervix, not the texture. Chadwick's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the bluish or purplish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased blood flow and congestion. Chadwick's sign can be observed by visual inspection of the cervix during the first prenatal visit, usually around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation.
Choice C Reason: Goodell's sign. This is because Goodell's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity and edema. Goodell's sign can be detected by digital examination of the cervix during the first prenatal visit, usually around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation.
Choice D Reason: McDonald's sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign of pregnancy that involves the angle of the uterus, not the cervix. McDonald's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the ease of flexing the body of the uterus against the cervix, which creates an angle of 90 degrees or less. McDonald's sign can be assessed by bimanual examination of the uterus during the first prenatal visit, usually around 7 to 8 weeks of gestation.
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