A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:

Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.

Assess for congenital anomalies.

Determine fetal presentation.

Monitor fetal growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Assisting with the delivery of the placenta and ensuring that the fundus is contracted afterward. This is an appropriate action for the nurse to perform during the third stage of labor, as it helps complete the process of labor and prevent complications.

Choice B Reason: Palpating the woman's fundus for position and firmness. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is important to monitor the fundal height, location, and consistency to assess uterine involution and bleeding.

Choice C Reason: Encouraging the woman to push with her contractions. This is an action that is done during the second stage of labor, not the third. The second stage of labor is the period from full cervical dilation to the birth of the baby. The nurse's role is to support and coach the woman to push eﬀectively with her contractions.

Choice D Reason: Alleviating perineal discomfort with the application of ice packs. This is an action that is done after the delivery of the placenta, not during. It is a comfort measure that can reduce swelling, pain, and inﬂammation in the perineal area.

A. Grunting and nasal ﬂaring. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Abdominal breathing. D. Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Grunting and nasal ﬂaring. These are signs of respiratory distress in newborns, which indicate that their oxygenation needs are not being met. Grunting and nasal ﬂaring. This is because grunting and nasal ﬂaring are signs of respiratory distress in newborns, which indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Grunting is a noise made by the newborn when exhaling, which reﬂects an atempt to keep the alveoli open and increase lung volume.

Nasal ﬂaring is a widening of the nostrils when inhaling, which reﬂects an eﬀort to reduce airway resistance and increase airﬂow.

Choice B Reason: Acrocyanosis. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a common condition called acrocyanosis. Acrocyanosis means bluish discoloration of the hands and feet due to poor peripheral circulation in response to cold exposure or stress. It does not aﬀect oxygenation or ventilation and usually disappears within 24 to 48 hours after birth.

Choice C Reason: Abdominal breathing. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a normal patern of breathing for them. Abdominal breathing means that the newborn's abdomen rises and falls with each breath, which reﬂects the use of the diaphragm as the primary respiratory muscle.

Choice D Reason: Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a normal range of respiratory rate for them. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman has just entered the third stage of labor. The nurse would focus care on which of the following? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse assesses a 1-day-old newborn. Which finding indicates that the newborn's oxygenation needs are not being met? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The Mother-Baby nurse is caring for a two hour old newborn who is 36 4/7 weeks gestation. The nurse assesses that the newborn is experiencing tremors (jiteriness). What nursing action has the highest priority? Select one:

An adolescent patient at 20 weeks gestation states that it is important not to have a baby that weighs too much. She states this has been her rationale for limiting calories. Her weight has decreased from 110 pounds to 106 pounds. What would be the best nursing response? Select one:

The nurse's initial action when caring for an otherwise stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to: Select one:

In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except: Select one:

On the first prenatal visit, the woman's cervix feels softened upon examination. The nurse records this finding as: Select one:

An nurse is counseling a new mother about the immunologic properties of breast milk. The nurse emphasizes that breast milk is the main source of which specific immunoglobulin? Select one:

During a physical assessment of a newborn, the nurse observes bluish markings across the newborn's lower back. The nurse interprets this finding as: Select one: