A woman who attends a stress management group reveals to group members that though she recently divorced, she continues to care for her husband's aging parents. Which psychological mechanism should the nurse address in the plan of care?
Altruism.
Regression.
Compartmentalization.
Egocentrism.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Altruism involves addressing one's own needs through meeting the needs of others, and caring for the husband's aging parents is an example of this coping mechanism.
Choice B rationale: Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, which is not evident in the scenario.
Choice C rationale: Compartmentalization is the defense mechanism of separating conflicting thoughts or feelings, which is not clearly identified in the scenario. Choice D rationale: Egocentrism involves seeing the world from only one's own perspective, which is not the primary issue in the scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:A. The drug that was ingested is the most important information because knowing the specific substance determines the course of treatment. For example, acetaminophen overdose requires administration of N-acetylcysteine, while opioid overdose requires naloxone. Different drugs have different toxic effects, antidotes, and supportive measures, making this information critical to providing appropriate and potentially life-saving care.
Choice B rationale: The time since drug ingestion is important because many interventions, such as gastric lavage or activated charcoal, are time-sensitive. However, without knowing the specific drug, it is difficult to determine whether these interventions are necessary or effective
Choice C rationale: Knowing the reason for the suicide attempt is important for overall assessment and treatment planning but may not provide immediate information for the current situation.
Choice D rationale: Past history of depression is relevant to the client's overall mental health, but in the context of a suspected drug overdose, the time since ingestion takes precedence.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The nurse's response regarding watery eyes and diarrhea is not directly related to the client's concern about the medication's effect on blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale: This response minimizes the potential side effects, which is not accurate. Second-generation antipsychotics are associated with metabolic side effects, including changes in blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Offering an education sheet is helpful but does not directly address the client's specific concerns about the medication's impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the client's concern, provides information about the general tolerability of the medication, and invites the client to share more about their specific worries. It encourages open communication and allows the nurse to address the client's concerns more effectively.
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