A young adult client is brought to the emergency department with a suspected drug overdose. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the family?
Reason for the suicide attempt.
The drug that was ingested.
The time since drug ingestion.
Past history of depression.
The Correct Answer is B
A) While understanding the reason for the suicide attempt can provide important context, it is not as critical in the immediate management of a suspected overdose as knowing the specifics of what was ingested.
B) Identifying the drug that was ingested is the most important information for the nurse to obtain. Knowing the specific substance allows for appropriate and timely treatment, including the administration of antidotes if applicable and understanding potential complications.
C) The time since drug ingestion is also relevant, as it can influence treatment decisions and urgency. However, without knowing the specific drug, it may be challenging to determine the best course of action.
D) A past history of depression is important for the overall understanding of the client's mental health, but it does not have immediate implications for managing an overdose. The priority is to address the acute medical situation first.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Aspirin 81 milligrams PO daily is commonly used as a low-dose antiplatelet medication and is generally not concerning in this context, especially with the symptoms described. It does not have a direct impact on blood pressure or the acute symptoms presented.
B) Losartan 50 mg PO daily is an antihypertensive medication used to manage high blood pressure. While the client’s blood pressure is elevated, this medication is appropriate for managing hypertension, and it does not pose an immediate concern.
C) Phenelzine 60 mg PO daily is of the most concern. It is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which can have serious interactions with certain foods and medications, potentially leading to hypertensive crises, especially given the client’s high blood pressure of 216/108 mmHg. The client’s headache, nausea, and vomiting, combined with elevated vital signs, could indicate such a crisis, making this medication a significant concern.
D) Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg PO daily is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to treat hypertension. While the client’s blood pressure is high, this medication is typically used to lower blood pressure and does not pose an immediate risk in this situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic that may be used for agitation or hallucinations, but it is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Administering haloperidol without addressing withdrawal may not be effective and could lead to further complications.
B) Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is the preferred medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including agitation, anxiety, and hallucinations. It helps reduce the risk of severe withdrawal symptoms and seizures while providing sedative effects. Given the client’s symptoms of feeling bugs crawling on his body, which may indicate tactile hallucinations due to withdrawal, lorazepam would be the most appropriate choice.
C) Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can be used for allergic reactions or as a sedative, but it is not effective for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
D) Thiamine is important to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy in clients with a history of alcohol dependency, especially if there are signs of confusion or neurological deficits. However, it does not address the immediate symptoms of withdrawal the client is experiencing.
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