A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?

His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections

"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."

"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill

"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.

B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.

C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.

D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Status epilepticus: Status epilepticus is a life-threatening condition where seizure activity is continuous or occurs in rapid succession without recovery between seizures.

B. Anticonvulsant syndrome: This term is not a recognized medical condition.

C. Syphilitic posturing: This term is not associated with seizure disorders and is not a recognized condition.

D. Positive Babinski reflex: This indicates an upper motor neuron lesion but is not related to continuous seizure activity.

A. Several episodes of black and tarry stocks. B. Several episodes of hematochezia per day C. Post-alcohol ingestion epigastric pain. D. An oral temperature of 102

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Several episodes of black and tarry stools: This indicates melena, which is typically associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, not specifically Crohn's disease.

B. Several episodes of hematochezia per day: Hematochezia (fresh blood in stools) can occur in Crohn's disease due to inflammation and ulceration in the intestines.

C. Post-alcohol ingestion epigastric pain: This is more commonly associated with gastritis or peptic ulcer disease, not Crohn's disease.

D. An oral temperature of 102°F: While fever can occur in Crohn's disease during acute flare-ups, it is not a specific or definitive symptom of the condition. The primary symptoms are gastrointestinal in nature, such as abdominal pain and altered bowel habits.

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A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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