A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient is now sleepy and won't wake up: Increased drowsiness or difficulty waking up could indicate worsening of the hemorrhagic stroke, potentially due to increased intracranial pressure or a secondary brain injury.
B. Identification of an elevated serum cholesterol level: Elevated cholesterol is a risk factor for ischemic strokes but is not a direct indicator of complications from a hemorrhagic stroke.
C. The presence of nausea and a headache: This could be a common symptom following a hemorrhagic stroke but is not necessarily a specific indicator of a complication.
D. A complaint of neck pain and light intolerance: These symptoms are less specific to complications of a hemorrhagic stroke and could be related to other issues.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Diminished serum albumin levels cause water to shift from blood to tissue: In cirrhosis, liver dysfunction leads to decreased production of albumin, a protein that helps maintain oncotic pressure. Low albumin levels cause fluid to shift from the vascular space into the tissues, resulting in ascites and peripheral edema.
B. Portal hypotension causes a fluid shift from the abdominal cavity into the portal veins: Portal hypertension, not hypotension, is a common feature of cirrhosis, but it leads to ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system, not by shifting fluid into the portal veins.
C. Hypoaldosteronism causes a fluid volume deficit: shifting water from blood into tissue: Cirrhosis often leads to hyperaldosteronism, not hypoaldosteronism, resulting in sodium and water retention, which contributes to edema.
D. Aberrations of the portal system cause a back-up of blood that leads to hydronephrosis: Hydronephrosis is related to obstruction of the urinary tract, not a complication of portal hypertension or cirrhosis.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.