A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Manifests as neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques that cause a disruption of brain impulses: Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain, leading to disrupted neural communication.
B. Is an inherited disorder that, most often, begins before the age of fifty: While there are inherited forms of Alzheimer's (early-onset), most cases are sporadic and occur after age 65.
C. Can be caused by increased cerebral levels of acetylcholine: Alzheimer's disease is associated with decreased levels of acetylcholine, not increased levels.
D. Causes unusual sensory sensations such as numbness and shooting pain (paresthesia): Paresthesia is not a typical symptom of Alzheimer's disease; it is more related to neurological or peripheral nerve disorders.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Positive Brudzinski's sign: A positive Brudzinski's sign, which involves involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed, is a common finding in meningitis (both viral and bacterial).
B. Dysarthria and double vision: These symptoms are not typical of viral meningitis; they are more often associated with neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis.
C. Petechiae and purpura: These are more commonly associated with bacterial meningitis, particularly meningococcal meningitis, rather than viral meningitis.
D. Positive Babinski's reflex: A positive Babinski’s reflex indicates an upper motor neuron lesion and is not specific to meningitis.
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