A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
26. A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) following an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and is diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which laboratory finding is consistent with the diagnosis?
- elevated serum protein hyperproteinemia
- decreased serum liver enzymes (ALT).
- elevated number of platelets thrombocytosis)
- decreased level of clotting factors.
Correct answer:
A. Elevated serum protein hyperproteinemia: In cirrhosis, serum protein levels, particularly albumin, are often decreased due to impaired liver synthesis.
B. Decreased serum liver enzymes (ALT): In cirrhosis, liver enzyme levels such as ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are typically elevated due to liver damage and inflammation.
C. Elevated number of platelets (thrombocytosis): Cirrhosis often leads to thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) due to splenomegaly and decreased production of thrombopoietin.
D. Decreased level of clotting factors: The liver synthesizes most clotting factors, and in cirrhosis, the production of these factors is impaired, leading to decreased levels and increased bleeding risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Appendicitis: Appendicitis typically presents with right lower quadrant pain, not LLQ pain.
B. Barrett's esophagus: Barrett's esophagus is a condition associated with chronic GERD and does not cause leukocytosis, fever, or LLQ pain.
C. Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis often presents with LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis due to inflammation or infection of the diverticula in the colon.
D. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS may cause abdominal pain, but it does not cause fever or leukocytosis, and the pain is typically relieved with defecation and not localized to the LLQ.
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