A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A sudden, explosive, disorderly charge of neurons causes a transient aberration in brain function: This describes the pathophysiology of seizures, not myasthenia gravis.
B. Loss of the myelin sheath surrounding peripheral nerves causes asymmetric weakness: This describes multiple sclerosis, not myasthenia gravis.
C. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors causes muscle weakness with prolonged activity: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease where antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness, especially after repeated use.
D. A bacterial inflammatory illness that causes headache and photophobia: This describes meningitis, not myasthenia gravis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. An increased serum calcitonin level: Calcitonin is involved in lowering blood calcium levels, so increased levels would not indicate hypercalcemia but rather a compensatory mechanism to lower calcium.
B. An increased number of osteocytes: Osteocytes are bone cells, and their number is not a direct indicator of hypercalcemia. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts are more relevant to bone metabolism.
C. Elevated plasma magnesium levels: Elevated magnesium levels are not specifically indicative of hypercalcemia and can be related to other conditions.
D. An increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) level: Hypercalcemia can be associated with increased PTH levels, particularly in primary hyperparathyroidism. Elevated PTH can lead to increased calcium release from bones.
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