After educating a client on use of a diaphragm for contraception, which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching provided?

One I am fitted for the diaphragm it will always be the correct size

I need to leave the diaphragm in for six hours after the last act of intercourse

This contraceptive can be used during menstruation.

I can leave the diaphragm in for a day or two

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Once I am fitted for the diaphragm it will always be the correct size. Incorrect because weight changes, pregnancy, or pelvic surgery may require refitting.
B. I need to leave the diaphragm in for six hours after the last act of intercourse. This is correct to ensure that all sperm are inactivated.
C. This contraceptive can be used during menstruation. Incorrect because it's generally not recommended to use the diaphragm during menstruation due to increased risk of infection.
D. I can leave the diaphragm in for a day or two. Incorrect because leaving it in for more than 24 hours can increase the risk of infection, including toxic shock syndrome.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Review clotting studies lab report: Not relevant to the assessment finding of a blue-gray discoloration.
B. Notify the healthcare provider: Unnecessary unless there are other concerning clinical findings.
C. Document the findings in the electronic health record: A blue-gray discoloration across the sacrum is likely a Mongolian spot, a benign condition more commonly seen in infants of Asian, African, Native American, and Hispanic descent. Documenting this finding in the electronic health record ensures accurate and comprehensive medical documentation without unnecessary interventions.
D. Report parents to Child Protective Services: Inappropriate as this finding is a benign condition common among certain ethnic groups and not indicative of abuse.

A. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDS. B. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). C. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses. D. An atypical Papanicolaou smear at her last clinic visit.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs. Endometriosis often causes severe pelvic pain that does not improve with NSAIDs, distinguishing it from typical menstrual cramps.
B. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is not directly associated with endometriosis and typically presents differently.
C. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses. While bloating can occur with endometriosis, it is not a definitive symptom for diagnosis.
D. An atypical Papanicolaou smear at her last clinic visit. An atypical Pap smear is more related to cervical abnormalities, not endometriosis.

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After educating a client on use of a diaphragm for contraception, which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching provided?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When performing an initial assessment on a full-term infant whose parents are Asian, the nurse notes a blue-gray discoloration across the sacrum of the newborn. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find in a sexually active adolescent female concerned that she has contracted gonorrhea?

You are the nurse providing care for a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease. Which is a priority nursing intervention for this patient?

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After educating a client on use of a diaphragm for contraception, which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching provided?