After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Obtain a soft bristle toothbrush for client.

Provide a PRN nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for gum discomfort.

Review most recent coagulation lab values.

Report findings to healthcare provider.

Complete a medication variance report.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,D

A) Obtain a soft bristle toothbrush for the client:
This is an appropriate action because bleeding and tender gums can indicate oral bleeding, which may be exacerbated by the use of a standard toothbrush. Switching to a soft bristle toothbrush can help minimize trauma to the gums and reduce bleeding.

B) Provide a PRN nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for gum discomfort:
Administering NSAIDs in this situation is not recommended. NSAIDs can further increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Therefore, providing an NSAID could exacerbate the client’s bleeding symptoms.

C) Review most recent coagulation lab values:
This is a crucial action to assess the client’s coagulation status and determine if the bleeding and bruising are related to anticoagulant therapy. Reviewing coagulation lab values, such as prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR), can provide important information about the client’s clotting function and guide further management.

D) Report findings to the healthcare provider:
This is essential to ensure timely evaluation and management of the client’s symptoms. Bleeding and bruising after anticoagulant therapy may indicate an increased risk of bleeding complications, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly for further assessment and possible adjustment of the anticoagulant regimen.

E) Complete a medication variance report:
While documenting the client’s symptoms and actions taken is important for quality assurance and tracking adverse events, completing a medication variance report may not be the immediate priority in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client’s condition, managing symptoms, and communicating with the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Answer: B. Administer a second dose of naloxone.

Rationale:

A) Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion:
Chest tube insertion is not relevant in this situation. A chest tube is typically used for conditions like pneumothorax or pleural effusion, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. The immediate concern here is the opioid overdose and the need for further naloxone administration to reverse the opioid effects, not the placement of a chest tube.

B) Administer a second dose of naloxone:
Administering a second dose of naloxone is the most appropriate action. Naloxone is a short-acting opioid antagonist, and its effects can wear off before the opioids have fully cleared from the client’s system. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is severely depressed and the oxygen saturation is dangerously low, another dose of naloxone is necessary to reverse the opioid's effects and restore adequate breathing. Immediate action is required to prevent further hypoxia.

C) Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score:
While assessing the client’s level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client’s low respiratory rate and oxygen saturation indicate a critical need for immediate treatment to improve ventilation and oxygenation. Administering naloxone should take precedence over neurological assessment.

D) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):
While the client’s respiratory depression is severe, initiating CPR may not yet be necessary if the client still has a pulse. Administering naloxone can potentially reverse the respiratory depression and prevent the need for CPR. If the client's condition continues to decline despite naloxone administration, CPR may become necessary later, but the first step is to administer a second dose of naloxone to restore breathing.

A. Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast. B. Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered. C. Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time. D. Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast:
Administering sucralfate up to 1 hour after breakfast may not provide optimal effectiveness as it should ideally be taken on an empty stomach to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake. Taking it after breakfast might not allow sufficient time for the medication to coat these areas adequately.

B) Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered:
Taking sucralfate with meals or when the meal tray is delivered is not recommended as food can interfere with its effectiveness. It is best taken on an empty stomach to allow it to coat the stomach lining without interference from food, ensuring maximum therapeutic benefit.

C) Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time:
Documenting a refusal should only be done if the client declines after receiving appropriate education and understanding. Simply refusing the client's request without providing education on the proper timing for taking sucralfate would not be appropriate.

D) Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals:
This is the correct response. Educating the client about the importance of taking sucralfate at least 1 hour before meals ensures optimal effectiveness. This timing allows the medication to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake, maximizing its therapeutic benefit.

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After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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